After Justinian reconquered N.Africa, did he really allow Romans to reclaim land they allegedly held more than 100 years earlier, i.e., before the original Vandal conquest? How were land disputes between Romans claiming title to the same land resolved? How was valid title determined?
Also are there any analogous situations throughout ancient or medieval history? Perhaps the reconquista in Spain or the various (re)conquests of Jerusalem by Christians, Muslims, and Jews?