Why weren't the Allies in World War I able to force the Dardanelles with their superior naval power?

by AsaTJ

We've heard the story plenty of times about what a disaster the Gallipoli landings were, but I'm curious why they were necessary at all. Certainly the Allies had the larger and more advanced fleet compared to the Ottomans. Why did attempts to force the straits from the sea fail? Couldn't they have at least used naval bombardment from the near side to soften some of the land defenses and make the landings less treacherous?

thefourthmaninaboat

While more can always be said, I've previously answered a similar question.