I heard this

...This is the return to the days in which those who only spoke dialects, those who could not read and write in the national language, those who didn't have enough money and property were all deprived of a political say and a share in political power while continuing to be exploited in the labor market.

Not knowing much about history, I thought first only the rich voted (they voted each other), then all poor men, then women. From that quote, I see I was wrong, how did the right to vote - who had the right to vote - change over time.

(Edit: I'm asking in general, didn't want to specify any specific country, the author of the quote, Lea Ypi, was talking of European nations)