It's often suggested that the main causes of the French Revolution are massive inequality, mass hunger due to repeated bad harvests, and a massive national debt problem. In "Citizens", Simon Schama suggests that many of these issues were present in other countries in Europe, including Britain. The weather patterns that caused the bad harvests were not confined to France, inequality was an increasing problem as Britain industrialised, and the debt of the British state was just as bad as the French - not to mention they had just lost the American colonies to the revolution there.
Given that the generally cited reasons of the French Revolution also apply to Britain, why then was there no similar revolution there?
Hey there,
Just to let you know, your question is fine, and we're letting it stand. However, you should be aware that questions framed as 'Why didn't X do Y' relatively often don't get an answer that meets our standards (in our experience as moderators). There are a few reasons for this. Firstly, it often can be difficult to prove the counterfactual: historians know much more about what happened than what might have happened. Secondly, 'why didn't X do Y' questions are sometimes phrased in an ahistorical way. It's worth remembering that people in the past couldn't see into the future, and they generally didn't have all the information we now have about their situations; things that look obvious now didn't necessarily look that way at the time.
If you end up not getting a response after a day or two, consider asking a new question focusing instead on why what happened did happen (rather than why what didn't happen didn't happen) - this kind of question is more likely to get a response in our experience. Hope this helps!