Why did colonial Spaniards discourage indigenous American slavery on religious grounds but not African slavery?

by teddie_moto

I've been reading "A short history of Europe" by Simon Jenkins and it mentions that Spain discouraged and at times made enslavement of indigenous Americans illegal.

I did a bit of background reading and it seems that this is based on religious reasons, but I'm not sure I understand what those reasons actually are and why they didn't apply to Africans.

anthropology_nerd

There is always more to say, but you might be interested in this previous question featuring responses from myself, and the unparalleled insights of u/400-Rabbits.