Why did the Persian conquest begin the decline of ancient Mesopotamian culture instead of being assimilated like other conquers of the area such as the Amorites?

by sbut87201
Trevor_Culley

There's always more to say, but I covered a similar question in this post. The major thing I want to add is that the Amorites, Kassites, Chaldaeans, etc were assimilated because they moved from somewhere else to southern Mesopotamia. There was no Amorite empire based in an Amorite homeland. The Persians, as with several Elamite and Assyrian dynasties before them, conquered southern Mesopotamia and ruled it (in part) from their own homeland.