The Catholic Church held all its rites (including the Mass) in Latin until Second Vatican Council (1962-65), and prohibited translations of the Bible until quite late. Was it an intentional obscurantism to not let the believers understand the Bible and liturgy (so that the Church could manipuate the text and fool the believers, while the clergy live a corrupt life)? Or was it that the Church simply couldn't afford to either teach everyone Latin or translate the Bible and liturgy to diverse languages, all the while keeping the true meaning of the Bible genuine?
I also wondered if back before the 15th century, the European languages did not contain enough data/words/allegories to carry the vast message of the Bible, and a loyal translation was just impossible (not just because the monks translators may demand more beer than the pope could afford).
Here are some responses to questions similar to the ones you've posed.
Regarding the illegality of owning Bibles in the Vernacular:
Was it illegal for laypeople to own a Bible in the Middle Ages? By u/sunagainstgold
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/77hudn/was_it_illegal_for_laypeople_to_own_a_bible_in/
In the early 15th century, before the arrival of the printing press, how much did laymen in Western and Central Europe know about the Bible, theology, and the Christian faith in general? (Unknown commenter — user deleted)
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/68w1g9/in_the_early_15th_century_before_the_arrival_of/
Regarding the expensive nature of books in the Medieval period:
How expensive were books in pre-printing press societies? By u/Whoosier
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1ptw0b/how_expensive_were_books_in_preprinting_press/
How expensive, labor-intensive and time-consuming to make were medieval illuminated manuscripts such as bibles, gospels, books of hours, breviaries, bestiaries, apocalypses, etcetera? By u/dromio05 https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/ib9x85/how_expensive_laborintensive_and_timeconsuming_to/