As it is clear to see today, almost all European countries, with the exception of some Balkan countries, Ukraine, and Russia use the Latin alphabet. Obviously it is popular there because it developed there, but how come many of the alphabets that came from Asia and other regions of the world did not become more popular in Europe than they are today? You see that these languages that exist in Europe are most popular among immigrants, but how come earlier in history Latin was able to dominate so much over these other languages?
Hey there,
Just to let you know, your question is fine, and we're letting it stand. However, you should be aware that questions framed as 'Why didn't X do Y' relatively often don't get an answer that meets our standards (in our experience as moderators). There are a few reasons for this. Firstly, it often can be difficult to prove the counterfactual: historians know much more about what happened than what might have happened. Secondly, 'why didn't X do Y' questions are sometimes phrased in an ahistorical way. It's worth remembering that people in the past couldn't see into the future, and they generally didn't have all the information we now have about their situations; things that look obvious now didn't necessarily look that way at the time.
If you end up not getting a response after a day or two, consider asking a new question focusing instead on why what happened did happen (rather than why what didn't happen didn't happen) - this kind of question is more likely to get a response in our experience. Hope this helps!