I know the modern name comes from the name given by the ancient Greeks, "Aegyptus", but why did the Greeks call it that? The "ancient Egyptians" actually referred to their own land as Kemet, so why did they, and we today, not call it ancient Kemet, and its people Kemetians?
I always found it odd, from my understanding most other major ancient civilizations, and their people, have always been referred to by the names that they gave themselves. Why not them, though?
P.S - this is my third attempt at asking about this... I am honestly not sure what is so wrong with this question? I have already been called an idiot and told to get lost with this in two other subs.
edit: The rude messages about what a colossal moron I am can stop. Thanks.
While we wait for a historical linguist to respond to this specific question, please take a look at /u/uhhhh_no's great response. In it, they explain "Exonyms", or the names for outside people groups that don't match what those people groups call themselves. It touches on why exonyms are often so different from endonyms, or what people groups call themselves.