The Angevin Empire ruled half of France, but its French-speaking head of State, King Edward III King, was based in England. How French were England's king and nobles, and was there a large cultural rift between them and mainland French people? Did the close blood and fealty ties mean much?

by RusticBohemian

It seems like King Edward III could make a good argument that he was, by blood, closer to the French Throne than its current occupant. And he was a native French speaker with close ties of blood and fealty to the French nobility.

Did most accept his rule? Was he an outsider they despised as a foreigner? Was he not French enough, or they just didn't like that he was based in England?

Rittermeister

Could you clarify a few things for me? I'm a bit confused by the question as the Angevin Empire collapsed in the early 13th century, roughly one hundred years before Edward III came to the throne. Prior to the Hundred Years War, Edward ruled a much smaller portion of France, namely the duchy of Aquitaine.