When Thomas Jefferson penned the ever famous:

"We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their creator with certain unalienable rights, that among these are life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness".

I understand full well that Thomas Jefferson was a man of his time, and things were much different back in 1776 compared to today. But I'm genuinely curious as to how he reconciled saying (or writing) that "all men are created equal" while also owning slaves? Especially since there were abolition movements at the time and whatnot.

If someone more knowledgeable on this subject than I could provide some clarity, would be greatly appreciated, thanks!