Why didn’t the Allies invade in the north and the south of France in WWII?

by Electronic_Ad5481

It just makes sense to me that since Italy was under control and the Mediterranean was under control to invade both in Normandy and in Marseille or something. What am I missing?

Natural_Stop_3939

Well they did -- see this previous answer by /u/thefourthmaninaboat about Operation Dragoon