If the German Federal Elections Act ( BWahlG or BWG ) act was passed in the 50s what was keep the Coalition Government in the 20s from passing a similar act. Why didn't the Weimar Republic just limit fringe parties like the KPD and NSDAP in 1925, effectively stopping WW2 before it started?

by Royal_England23

Extra Details:

I was reading an alt-history sub and I stumbled across a debate about how Weimar Germany could've remained a Democracy. The first post suggested that the Coalition Government between the DNVP, SPD, and Zentrum could've passed an act similar to this one: https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bundeswahlgesetz

Pastebin for the act that was suggested Weimar Germany pass in the sub: https://pastebin.com/UXFXRPxZ

Why wasn't this possible?

Hergrim

Hey there,

Just to let you know, your question is fine, and we're letting it stand. However, you should be aware that questions framed as 'Why didn't X do Y' relatively often don't get an answer that meets our standards (in our experience as moderators). There are a few reasons for this. Firstly, it often can be difficult to prove the counterfactual: historians know much more about what happened than what might have happened. Secondly, 'why didn't X do Y' questions are sometimes phrased in an ahistorical way. It's worth remembering that people in the past couldn't see into the future, and they generally didn't have all the information we now have about their situations; things that look obvious now didn't necessarily look that way at the time.

If you end up not getting a response after a day or two, consider asking a new question focusing instead on why what happened did happen (rather than why what didn't happen didn't happen) - this kind of question is more likely to get a response in our experience. Hope this helps!