"Had" isn't very specific, everywhere "had" no written language at some point. But in most reasonable contexts yes they (and treating all of sub Saharan Africa as a monolith is always a stretch) had written language, and yes that includes those scripts. See this answer by u/Commustar, https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/7kq0mw/is_it_true_that_there_was_no_written_language_in/?utm_medium=android_app&utm_source=share

What you might have heard and meant is that sub-Saharan Africa didn't have an independently created writing system, which may be true (as you'll see those two scripts you mention trace their roots to Arabia and Egypt) but is also the norm in the world. Writing and associated systems were independently invented only a few times around the world. Even the script you and I are using, based on the old Latin script spread far and wide by the Roman empire and Republic, was something that traces it roots to the Greeks, who got it from the Phoenicians, and they got it from the ancient Egyptians.