Since Spanish is more closely related to Latin, which up until relatively recently was a studied and spoken language, did it have the same type of drastic changes in spoken form and written spelling that English did? How far back could a modern Spanish speaker go back and have a fluent conversation?

by puffmonkey92

Old English, Middle English, and Modern English all have threads of commonality through them, but how recognizable would the Conquistadore’s Spanish be to a modern Spanish speaker?