How come Spain didn't produce a single developed nation from its colonies like the UK?

by Chilaquil420

The UK produced multiple developed and rich nations like the US, Canada, Australia and New Zealand. I'm also aware of India and Pakistan.

​

But Spain does not have any rich "children" and to this day it is the only spanish speaking country that is also a developed nation. What did Spain do wrong that the UK did right?

​

​

I'm not taking into account other british colonies, I know not all ended up rich. But I ams asking why none of the spanish colonies ended up developed but some UK colonies ended up rich

NewtonianAssPounder

Knew I saw this answered before but Reddit’s search function was once again uncooperative. Answer by u/rememberthatyoudie on “Why are British colonies so successful?”