A recent Guardian article about climate-resilient crops had this throwaway line: "In the Americas, Spanish colonizers banned the Aztecs and Maya from growing amaranth when they arrived on the continent." What would be the purpose of Spaniards banning cultivation of a staple crop?

by DaaraJ
pineneedlemonkey

There is an excellent response about crops being lost during the Colombian Exchange by u/hueytlatoani here. The main point seems to be that Spaniards saw that amaranth was used in religious rituals and were against the growing and selling of it because this. Amaranth appeared to them to be an evil counterpart to the wheat used in the making of communion hosts. The two part response goes into much more detail.