I've often seen posters on this sub, as well as on badhistory, mention offhand that feudalism didn't really exist, or at least that its existence is debated by modern historians. What is generally meant by this? Is it just an emphatic way of saying that "feudal" relationships were more complex and varied than some single system? Let's say I broadly define feudalism to be a system in which one landholding noble offers protection to many other nobles, in exchange for some kind of tribute or service. How well does that model fit medieval Europe? Feel free to limit the scope of your answer, if necessary.
You might want to check out this response by u/y_sengaku posted last week.