Was the goal of the Spaniards in regard to the indigienous people in America subjugation/enslavement, extermination, or a mix of both?

by factapologists

I was watching a video today in response to Jonny Harris's video, and they stated "The Spanish did not deliberately cause the catastrophic loss to the population. They wanted a work force." Is this narrative true?

TywinDeVillena

While we wait for a more detailed answer, this old response of mine may come in handy to cover some elements relevant to your question.

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/ewsa3w/in_latin_america_at_least_in_my_country_we_are/