How did people address "the not straight in our modern definition" people during the roman empire? Were there any trans, binary, asexual, or gender-fluid in those times since they were pretty much not prosecuted and had to stay in the closet?

by JVJV_5

With all the tolerance and acceptance in the modern day, more and more of the lgbt have come out without fear of being attacked. Some people are calling some of them as "taking it too far" with the many additions of genders. I wonder if they had already existed, in one way or another, in ancient societies that were tolerant and accepting of non-heterosexual relationships and non-cisgendered people.

Then for the gendering/misgendering part, did they refer to themselves according to they sex (male, female) or did they have specific pronouns? Instead of he, a non-cis person referred to herself as she. Or maybe they didn't care and just proceeded to continue using he and the gendered words remained masculine and feminine.

gynnis-scholasticus

Sorry to be so late in responding to this question! As I do not have time to give a full answer to this myself, I can link to some earlier ones that might be helpful.

The most direct answer to your question one can find here by u/UndercoverClassicist, from a more linguistic/philological perspective, and I can also recommend this massive post by u/Spencer_A_McDaniel, especially the second and third parts which is about the gender identity of eunuchs