You can use the term feudal to describe a pretty specific and global era in history (minus the Americas) that sandwich between the dark ages and the renaissance, a time of swords and peasant farmers.. but why do we never use the term medieval the same way, is there something specifically European that the term captures which was absent from say China?
I can recommend some earlier answers for you. Firstly the term feudalism has come under quite a lot of criticism in recent years, as you can read more about in the FAQ, in this thread with earlier answers assembled by u/FrenchMurazor and u/DanKensington, and in this answer by u/ConteCorvo. Concerning "medieval", I can recommend this thread by u/y_sengaku, this one by u/amp1212 and this most recently by u/Tiako, which discuss if there was a mediaeval period in Asia, and the concept of the Global Middle Ages. Further answers by our users are highly appreciated, as always