Have economic sanctions ever resulted in the initial stated desired outcome goals of the sanctions against the target country?

by saminfujisawa

I'm wondering if this is tracked anywhere, has this ever happened?

  1. Country A defines a set of desired outcomes for new economic sanctions against Country B.
  2. Country A imposes sanctions on Country B.
  3. The desired outcomes defined in Step 1 are the actual results of the economic sanctions against Country B.
KanosKohli

Since you are asking for a very specific example, I can point to you the ban Britain issued on Indian textile products in 1700's, to protect local businesses.

A sequence of other events aligning with this decision was very much crucial to the growth of the British empire.

Sequence of events being invention of steam engine, energy extraction from coal mines, and industrial revolution.

Britain started to make cheap rip-offs of Indian textile products. Then, their innovation in textile machinery end resulting in their domination (global slave trade, control of raw materials helped no doubt)

However there is no doubt that Britain's economic sanctions directly helped stir their local talent pool and industry. And just about destroyed local Indian industry

I'll look up exact references for this and update my comment.