Hello there. I'm a big fan of the Crash Course YouTube channel. Recently, I finished a watch of their European History series and noticed that the host, John Green, referred to slaves as "enslaved people". So, I was wondering, is there a preference that historians have in regard to usage between the two words? According to this article from Slate, use of "enslaved person/people" gained popularity in the 1990s and was supposed to return some kind of agency to those who were enslaved. Now, I have my own thoughts on this subject (namely that Foner's stated arguments are more convincing to me), but I would like to hear from those who spend their time actually researching and writing about slavery. Also, and not to say that I think their opinions necessarily hold more weight, but do black historians have some kind of observable preference between the two words?

Any answers are greatly appreciated. This question has just been banging around in my head for a few weeks.