How could poor Jews afford copies of the Torah before printing?

by Flopsey

Jews have historically been literate because they were required to learn to read the Torah. But before the printing press books were super expensive and exclusively for the rich. So how did poor communities of Jews have access to a Torah to learn to read?

Bitter_Thought

So actually a Torah itself isn't printed. All proper Scrolls are handwritten on parchment. They're still very expensive. Mostly only synagogues have a proper Torah and some struggle to even afford those since they still cost tens of thousands of dollars.

You can still learn the materials outside of a proper scroll. This was rather hard to do historically since all the Jewish books are rather long so its a substantial amount of material.

Historically, it's important to note that the learning was originally oral (word of mouth) and essentially evolved to be written over time. It was considered somewhat sacrilegious for jews to write down laws until about during the Babylonian exile. That's when Jewish law began to be well compiled into the Talmud, as an evolution of the oral tradition.

So the short answer is that they either didn't learn, learned oral laws, or studied in groups.

There wasn't a book for everyone. You learned in small groups. There are still lots of quirks from these limits in many Jewish groups. You have a "chazan" or cantor who does most of the reading and fulfills obligations for the congregation with his readings. There is also the practice of "daf yomi" where the Talmud readings are done in pairs at a page a day.

Torontoguy93452

As an add on, did Jewish communities have substantially higher literacy rates during the pre-modern period? And was there a gender divide in this access?