I've read that a common cross cultural indication of slavery across the world is that, no matter the level of their other garb, they frequently were either explicitly or implicitly not allowed to wear foot wear for a variety of reasons but at the most symbolic as a symbol of bondage.
Did this hold true for Higher Cost, more Educated slaves like, for example, Roman Tutor slaves or Arabic Ministerial slaves? Or was it geared towards laborer slaves?
Or is this not actually A Thing at all and Wikipedia misled me?
I think one should generally be way of thinking a cultural idea must apply to all premodern cultures. In this older post on Roman footwear, u/BodaciousFerret does mention that slaves tended to be unshod. But to my knowledge the only clothing that were legally restricted to citizens was the toga, and as u/toldinstone describes here it was not always possible to distinguish free from enslaved at first glance. So likely these enslaved specialists in Rome wore shoes much like ordinary citizens