Iranians tend to say that Iran ruled India. Making it seem like it was always the case.
How is it possible if Ancient Indian civilization was older than many other kingdoms?
Other than Achaemenid conquest of the Indus Valley, I don't seem to find much information on this.
Iranians never "ruled" India per say, but rather that India with the coming of Islam was mostly invaded by 'persianized" Turks from central Asia. So rather than Iranians themselves, Turks who were mostly patrons and influenced by Persian culture, ruled most of North India and brought aspects of Iranian culture into the subcontinent (examples being Language, food, architecture). However as these "foreign" populations began to interact with the local population, aspects of Iranian culture became ingrained into parts of the subcontinent's culture, creating the indo-persian culture we see during the Delhi sultanate/Mughal periods.
However, if you're referring to pre-Islamic Persian dynasties such as the Sassanids or the Achaemenids, none haven't managed to conquer deeply into the subcontinent (mostly conquering the outskirts of modern day Pakistan such as Sindh.