See this very detailed answer by u/JosephRohrbach - and BTW, of you go through all of it, it never was ‘Yashua’ (‘Yeshua’ is as close as it gets to that).

Paleo-Hebrew wasn't in common use in the 1st century, incidentally.

I'm assuming "Yashua" is a typo for "Yeshua," which is how it's usually represented.

However it probably wasn't that: it was probably just "Yeshu." The -a comes from the last letter, ע, which in antiquity represented a pharyngeal consonant. The medieval rabbis thought that that sounded kind of like adding an 'a' vowel in some contexts, so they made a rule that you added a final -a.

So, Yeshu. How do we get from Yeshu to Jesus?

To start off with, most of the early church, from very early on, was Greek-speaking, not Hebrew- or Aramaic-speaking. They read or listen to their their scriptures and homilies in Greek. And there's a problem with that, because "Yeshu" contains two consonants, and neither of those consonants exists in Greek: what we represent in English as "y" and "sh." Greek Christians aren't going to learn to mimic Hebrew or Aramaic whenever they want to mention the name of their Lord, so they give it the closest approximation they have, Ἰησοῦς (three syllables: i-e-sus). Note that the accent is on the final syllable, as it had been in Hebrew/Aramaic. They stuck an -s onto the end because most Greek masculine names end in -s.

Well, once a bunch of Latin-speakers start becoming Christian, they don't start with Jesus' Hebrew/Aramaic name: they probably never considered the fact that he had a Hebrew/Aramaic name. All their scriptures are in Greek. Most bishops and priests are Greek. Even at Rome Christianity spreads first in Greek. For all practical purposes, Greek is for them the original language. So they adopt the Greek name and adapt it to Latin speech-patterns, and get Iesus (two syllables: ye-sus). At some point the Latin-speakers move the accent to the first syllable, according to the rules of Latin stress.

From Iesus/Jesus (spelling difference, no pronunciation difference originally) you get the name of Jesus in all western European languages. Each language then further modified the pronunciation. In English, among others, pretty early in the initial "y" sound in Latin words began to be pronounced as our "j", and then the open "eh" vowel gets raised to "ee," so you get the modern English pronunciation of Jesus.

In IPA the changes happen like this:

/je.'ʃu/ (Hebrew/Aramaic)
/i.e.'sus/ (Greek)
/'je.sus/(Latin)
/'dʒe.zəs/ (early English)
/'dʒi.zəs/ (modern English)

The same doesn't happen to the name Satan simply because the sounds in question didn't go through the same series of changes. So

satan > satanas > satana > satan

There's nothing special about "Satan"; all the languages in question simply happen to have all of those sounds and not to modify them.

Edit: For "satan," actually, depending on when the name was adopted into Greek, Hebrew might still have had a sound not extant in Greek: but it was just adapted as a "t" which is what it has since become in most Hebrew anyway.