I am aware of a debate around whether or not 1932-33 famines in Ukraine and Kazakhstan were acts of genocide perpetrated by the Soviet State, and neither sides absolve the Soviet government from causing or contributing to the starvation.
I am also aware of consensus being that the British caused or contributed to the famine in Ireland. Is there an argument that this was a genocide? If so what are the main points of argument, if no, what are the main reasons why it is not a genocide?
Hi, this gets asked here a lot. Here are some previous responses:
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/xa9t7w/did_britain_actually_cause_the_great_faminehunger/ from u/newtonianasspounder
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/pqjz96/the_irish_potato_famine_18451852_while_often/ from u/eddie_fitzgerald
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/he2p3h/why_did_the_irish_ignore_fishing_during_the_famine/ from u/gothwalk