So I have recently read in a Spanish newspaper (a regional one, link below) that this was because the Romans wanted to start a war against Iberians asap due to a city near Zaragoza wanting to expand its wall, so they had to accelerate the political new year.
My question is: Is this correct?
The issue is that while the newspaper is reputable is from Zaragoza and newspapers tend to exaggerate local achievements. But this theory is consistent with a previous answer in this sub.
I answered a similar question last year:
Why is January 1 the first day of the year?
The short answer is that the Romans themselves didn't know why the year started on January 1, because the change happened long before Roman historians started writing things down. The explanation in the newspaper is correct, in the sense that that's the story told by Livy. But was Livy correct? We don't really know...