What I'm pretty much asking is when we're years invented.

I was doing some research on the HRE on its Istitution and the rights and privilages of it's member states. I know that you get more rights when you are a prince, for example you can form alyances with states outside of the Empire. But I never found what extra rights or duties a margraviate has (specificaly the Brandenburgian margraviate) nor what rights and duties the only kingdom of Bohemia has.

To state my question - What privilages, rights and duties came with those two titles?

(taxation (in own teritory and given to the emperor), foreing relations, electorship, legislative powers, etc.)

I want to avoid asking a "what if" question, but its more of "Would they have been able to put themselves in a better position" type question:

I guess I haven't done too much research into the actual reasons behind the start of WWII, but I do recall (correct me if I'm wrong) that Nazi Germany was rapidly investing in infrastructure and their Military, and it seemed like the rest of Europe was reluctant to go to war, especially with most of them still feeling the effects of the great depression.

Germany had a lot of advanced weapons that seemed to come only a year or two too late to really effect the war, but had some of the largest battleships ever made laid down, the largest aircraft carrier of the time planned, and weapons like the jet fighter on the horizon that really never materialized due to the war.

I understand that looking back is 20/20, but would they have could they have been better off waiting? And was waiting really and option?

Popular culture portrays Roman soldiers primarily using their swords and shields as their main weapons. The pilum could be used as a javelin and is widely known today for that reason. However, you never see the pilum used as a spear wall or as phalanx for lack of a better term. Were they used in this manner in Roman history? I can’t imagine soldiers would be too keen to throw away a perfectly good spear without a second thought.

I am doing research for a screenplay that I'm developing, in which the main character is a member of the 24th infantry division in the battle of Okinawa. I was wondering what role the division played during the battle, and what ended up happening to it. If anyone here has knowledge about them, please do let me know and help me.

To some extent, I'm thinking of how this compares to the execution of Charles I by Parliament in 1649, which seems to have caused a far greater stir, yet the process of Richard's deposition from what I know of it through Froissart's Chroniques seems eerily familiar.

I'll specify the timeframe to around the 1880's-1900's, when organized labor movements such as the Knights of Labor and the American Federation of Labor began organizing and advocating for workers rights in the industrial sectors such as Coal and Steel.

Were elements of these upstart labor movements aware of or read up on Marx and his Communist Manifesto that was being discussed among European intellectuals? If so, what was their take on the manifesto, especially as it applied to the work environment they were advocating reforms for?

I just heard that there's a theory that suggests the Phoenicians might have discovered America before the Vikings (The Phoenicians existed in 1500-300 BC). Can this actually be true and what evidence do we have to back it up?

I'm trying to write a screenplay about WWII that's hopefully as historically accurate as possible, and one of my main characters is a Japanese soldier sent to Okinawa from the home island. I was wondering whether or not the Japanese military had sent in soldiers as reinforcements even after the fighting there had started.

The hierogliphs, the profile images, and the general style seems unchanged for the whole duration of the egyptian civilization.

And how similar or different were these effects to the ones Europe experienced?

I do know a little about its effects in Asia, something to do with the Mongols throwing diseased corpses and a little about the bacteria in China. But that’s about it, I’m not super familiar with this period of history at any rate.

Detroit seems to have a lot of elements in common with the other early hotspots of hip hop, and even had a strong musical background with Motown. But Detroit wasn't really a big part of the scene until Eminem came along in the early 2000s, and even he had to go out to LA before he could do much with music.

So why did Detroit not contribute as much to early hip hop as NYC and LA, despite having all the right ingredients?

I've been looking into Zoroastrianism, and have been fascinated by how it seemingly very strongly influenced the Abrahamics. It sort of leads me to a weird sense of "this religion is more authentic because it didn't take from another like those did." Clearly that's not the most brilliant idea, I know. But aside from the fact that it may have actually done the reverse and taken some from Islam in later years, what about what came before? What inspired it? How far back can we go in this chain to a reasonable knowledge of a precursor faith?

How did the romans use the bathroom in Rome?

Surely, there must have been a significant amount of high ranking civil and military Germans who thought Hitler's plan of waging wars of aggression against most of the world and committing genocide was either 1) unethical or 2) ignoring ethics, was a bad idea for Germany. So why didn't more Germans oppose Hitler?