What was the cause for the initial divide and ultimate separation? How did the Church of England play into this? Not sure if that was around the same time.

Caesar invaded Gaul with more than 40000 men if memory serves me right, the legions Varus lost at Teutoburg numbered 20000 to 36000, yet Belisarius gets only 7000 men to invade Italy and has to fight rebels in northern Africa with 2000. Why is this ?

Thank you !

As I understand it the fork was invented after Europeans came back from the far east and saw the locals who they viewed as savage using chopsticks and decided it was no longer proper to eat with their hands. I can imagine that a chopstick is the intuitive solution for someone who doesn't want to eat with their hands but what was it about the Asian cuisine that necessitated this?

I was curious about this, I've heard about rape happening a lot in Vietnam war but no vets really seem to bring it up. How many people raped? Was it considered 'standard'? What about in WW2, was it more common then or less?

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One of the more interesting questions I had regarding rape in Vietnam war, was "What is the most common reason for rape?"

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I heard before that some commanders encouraged gangerape for the sense of 'brothership' and to 'mess with their family lineage', was this true?

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I hope this post doesn't break any rules, this is a legitimate question and

My question mostly focuses on Rome during the Republic era. I’m also curious if there were socioeconomic factors regarding which language(s) a Roman citizen might have known.

I'm also curious how the idea of one China two systems was developed, and how seriously Hong Kong's political autonomy was taken during negotiations. Was it just the UK and PRC deciding things, or did they ask Hong Kong what it wanted?

I don't know if this is the correct subreddit to ask this, but I remember a while ago I read on a thread here something about museums having copies of the original artwork on display, while the originals are kept safe on a deposit or something like that. Is this true? Is this a general sort of international rule or something that only a few museums do, only with some artworks maybe?

Hi all,

I just returned from a trip to Gettysburg and was confused as to why J.E.B. Stuart’s Calvary unit wasn’t used in support of the infantry during the attack on Cemetary ridge, as they were still a useful unit type at the time. Also why was the confederate infantry marching on such a broad front instead of a more narrow one?

How far back in time can historians reasonably track the origins of folklore stories?

I know that many English-speaking Muslims, when writing Muhammad's name, will add PBUH (peace be upon him) afterward. I was just really intrigued by this because not only does this seem very standardized among English speaking Muslims (not in the sense of everyone doing it- I have no idea- but in the sense that everyone uses that acronym), it is actually an English acronym, not an Arabic one. In Judaism, there are some acronyms that are used- in fact, we have one for "peace be upon him," AH for alav hashalom/aleha hashalom (which we use for people who have passed away)- but they're generally Hebrew phrases that have been used for centuries. I've never heard of an acronym being so popularly used based off an English phrase that's a translation of an original phrase.

So where did PBUH come from? How did it become the standard? Do other languages have an equivalent acronym?

EDITED: Just to make my question clearer- how did this English-LANGUAGE (not English-LETTER) acronym become standardized among English-speaking Muslims, as opposed to what would seem to me (though possibly more just due to my own cultural background and subsequent biases) would be the more simple and universalized thing of an Arabic-LANGUAGE (in English transliteration) acronym? When/why did people start writing it in English and not Arabic?

My evolutionary teacher said they both worked on a evolutionary theory and that both were much alike. So why does everyone know about Charles darwin and is Wallace less known?

Edit: I'm a masters student and we saw this in the course evolutionary psychology. The reason I'm posting this question is because I wonder why natural selection and evolutionary theory is linked to Darwins name. In high-school his name was the only one talked about. What did he do that made his name be remembered. While Wallace was doing the same thing but is less known.

I've heard this often from Marxism; that capitalism is responsible for colonialism, which in turn contributed to the intensification and globalization of capitalism. Is this the case? Was Europe in 1500 more capitalist than the rest of the world?

With films and TV like Paris is Burning and Pose showing us snapshots of what life was like in those underground scenes in New York, what was going on in the rest of the US/world?

Did they also adopt the ballroom subculture, houses, etc. or did they have their own thing going on in SF/Chicago/LA/DC/Miami and other places that would eventually become highly populated gay cities?

Were they aware of what life was like in NYC?

Thanks in advance!

Hey

i came across Confucius' quote

Don't use cannon to kill musquito.

I wonder what cannon does he talk about?

cannons were invented a long after his time.

was it lost in translation or something?

My understanding is that Nazis were some of the first to be able to use film for propaganda, are the shots of large crowds strategically placed to make them look larger than they were? Or were people really that involved to show up at the speeches and other events?

More specifically, what socio-economic forces made this happen in the 10th century? What changed between the 10th and 13th and why?

This has been a long time curiosity of mine since I love reading about the stories of entrepreneurs and how they made their millions. I am curious to see if there are any people throughout history who would fit into this archetype that I could read more about, or if this archetype is a modern invention that came as a result of industrialization. Thanks!

You read sometimes about slaves being freed in the early decades of the USA. Being a century and a half before Jim Crow, what was life like for a freed slave back then? Aside from the literal lack of bondage, what freedoms did they have or lack in law or practice?

To make this question more specific, I was trying to discover more about the pre-Christian mythology in (what is now) the Netherlands. Since our history classes only ever talked about the Romans and then just skipped straight ahead to Christian early medieval times. Only to discover that there's essentially nothing on this on the internet (at least, not something in depth that can be turned up with only an hour or two of searching).

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Essentially, all I've been able to find is stuff I mostly knew already: A mix of Celtic and Germanic mythology. Above the Rhine mostly Germanic (so "Norse mythology with different names") practices by the Low Franconians, Frisians, Tubanti, Canninefates, and Batavians. And below the Rhine more Celtic traditions.

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But when I look for details...nothing. A handful of names for gods matching Norse counterparts (Wodan = Odin, Donar = Thor, etc.), but other than that nothing. Meanwhile, there are thousands upon thousands of pages on Celtic (stories of the Tuatha Dé Danann and the Daoine Sidhe abound) and Norse mythology.

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I guess the Norse mythology part is easily explained by it surviving long enough in Scandinavia to be written down in the Edda. But how can we know so much about Celtic mythology (which, to the best of my knowledge was never written down like the Edda was) and absolutely nothing about the traditions in the Netherlands?