I am writing a historical drama set in Venice in 1347-1348, when the plague first hit European shores. How much information about the disease might have travelled to Venice and Italy before the endemic struck? For instance were people in Italy (specifically Venice, but Sicily and Florence as well) aware of the bio-warfare tactics used by Mongol warriors (catapulting infected corpses into besieged cities, etc.), and the virulent spread of the disease throughout Asia from the 1330s onwards.

I have never read the romance of the three kingdoms, but I am researching the period now just out of interest. I have studied enough historical biography to know not to trust everything written about a historical figure, and I'm getting a lot of suspicious feelings around the character of Liu Bei. He seems too good to be true while Cao Cao has a garbage reputation, despite being revered as a genius. He is revered more as an evil genius. While I don't really doubt that he had enormous ambitions my scepticism refuses to let me believe that that wasn't also true of Liu Bei. Liu Bei's acquisition of first Tao Qians province and then Liu Biao's province both seem particularly suspicious. At the very least I feel like he was a more complicated character then history and the romance scenes to depict him as. My question is this; does the romance of the three kingdoms depict him in a more complicated and realistic light, or was he historically a guy who just seemed to be at the right place at the right time? Thank you!

Ie. when was it first suggested that Vinland exists and is in north America, and when did it became accepted?
If it all happened in scandinavia itself, when did it became well known in the rest of Europe/Colonies?

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A lot of articles about cultural Marxism (I am aware of the history of this term, its associations, etc. so no need to go into that. I'm just explaining where I heard this claim) say that as minister of culture in Hungary, Lukacs implemented policies of radical sex education which exposed children to graphic sexual content and encouraged them to reject sexual morality and the family unit. I can't find anything on this from the man himself though, nor can I find anything from communists talking about it... Do you know if this is true or if it's not, where this misunderstanding comes from?

Im in early America, im building houses, businesses, etc. What sort of early insults am i hurling at my incompetent coworkers?

I recently watched an interview with Bernie Sanders where he claims that democratic socialists have historically been against authoritarian communist regimes like the Soviet Union. The democratic socialists of America’s website claims that “Socialists have been among the harshest critics of authoritarian Communist states... Democratic socialists always opposed the ruling party-states of those societies, just as we oppose the ruling classes of capitalist societies.” Is there any truth to these claims?

If there was an exclusion zone in place around Chernobyl, how was the plant still able to produce power? Reactor 3 was only shut down in 2000, a full 14 years later.

As I understand it, the plant kept producing power even though the cleanup of Reactor 4. It seems something that would render a 30km radius uninhabitable would also render the plant at the center of said zone uninhabitable too. Did people just commute into and out of the exclusion zone, only working their shifts? Was the plant remotely operated? Is the answer buried in some ex-Soviet archive somewhere?

I recently ran into an argument about the early Christian churches opinion on martyrdom through the 3rd century. The main issue was someone was indicating that, while martyrdom was encouraged early on, somewhere around the 3rd century it started being discouraged. I've found some scattered references to Christian committing suicide or trying to get themselves killed, believing it would automatically get them into heaven.

I know there are a lot of martyrs in the early Church, but how common was it for someone to try to get themselves killed or even commit suicide? Was this a large enough issue that it had to be address by the leaders of the Church? Was it discouraged at some point? I'm sorry if this question is too vague, but I'm real curious about what opposition and issues there were with the martyr ideal in the early Church.

Now I know this seems like an easy to answer question, but recently my history teacher(I'm a junior in high school) claimed that feudalism as we call it only happened in southern France, which is a claim I have never heard before and surprised me. I asked him what he would call the system in place in other places such as the HRE and England and the rest of France and he said that the systems in place there were inspired and based around feudalism, but weren't properly feudalism. I then researched a lot online and couldn't find anything that backed him and am now asking here just to be really sure. So, how correct is his claim?

I know coming from video games, like World of Tanks and War thunder, isn't the best way to analyse a tanks real world capabilities. But in these games the opposition counterparts seem to out perform in most areas.

So I was wondering how 'good' the Churchill was?