I assume the people of Britain went through significant change in the Roman era, from "blue-skinned tribes" to the pre-Anglo-Saxon culture. The Romans brought many things with them, including a new language and religion(s), architecture and engineering. Some of this (e.g. religion) must have been passed on to the natives, but other things (architecture and engineering) didn't. Why? Did the Romans continue to treat Britains as a savage, wild culture, or did any form of social equality (e.g. Britains attaining some degree of Roman rights like becoming equestrians) emerge? Or was knowledge passed on, but fail to sustain itself because once the garrisons left the Britons needed to focus on defending themselves from barbarian invaders?

Hey everyone I'm trying to learn languages specifically to be good at translating documents (to be able to fulfill future graduate school requirements). My issue is that nearly all language classes I can take in college right now are entirely dedicated to teaching conversational language and not how to translate historical documents. Anybody have programs or just general tips for learning languages specifically for historical purposes? Thanks

Before WW2, I guess there was trade and tourism taking place between countries all over Europe and the world. German companies traded with American companies and vice versa. Then the war waged.

At what point did tourism and trade halt and how did it affect companies? When were patents no longer respected?

Okay so essentially my question is: why do people assert that fascism is a far right idea, and communism is a far left idea.

To be they are completely separate ideas that aren’t comparable in anyway..

I'm really interested in learning Japanese history, but it's difficult where I'm American. They never really taught it in school so I don't have much of a grasp on it. I know a bit about Sengoku Jidai and the war with Korea, but aside from that not much. So are there any books that give a good general overview of it?

I heard a while ago that part of the reason was that the Bosnian Christian church was weakened because accepting the Bogumils(sp?) angered both the orthodox and catholic neighbors. But I've seen offhand mentions on some other history subreddits that that was a misconsception.

So I'm asking you guys, What caused the greater conversion rate? Or were there some other factors that caused the modern discrepancy of muslim representation in the countries of the Balkans?

So, I been reading some articles about the punic religion, and some sources are telling that this claim in unconfirmed.

[1] - Source: Wikipedia --> Various Greek and Roman sources describe and criticize the Carthaginians as engaging in the practice of sacrificing children by burning.[12] Classical writers describing some version of child sacrifice to "Cronos" (Baal Hammon) include the Greek historians Diodorus Siculus and Cleitarchus, as well as the Christian apologists Tertullian and Orosius.[72][73] These descriptions were compared to those found in the Hebrew Bible describing the sacrifice of children by burning to Baal and Moloch at a place called Tophet.

And after that I did find out this [2] - Source: Wikipedia --> The degree and existence of Carthaginian child sacrifice is controversial, and has been ever since the Tophet of Salammbô was discovered in 1920.[88] Some historians have proposed that the Tophet may have been a cemetery for premature or short-lived infants who died naturally and then were ritually offered.[76] The Greco-Roman authors were not eye-witnesses, contradict each other on how the children were killed, and describe children older than infants being killed as opposed to the infants found in the tophets.[74] Accounts such as Cleitarchus's, in which the baby dropped into the fire by a statue, are contradicted by the archaeological evidence.[89] There are not any mentions of child sacrifice from the Punic Wars, which are better documented than the earlier periods in which mass child sacrifice is claimed.[74] Child sacrifice may have been overemphasized for effect; after the Romans finally defeated Carthage and totally destroyed the city, they engaged in postwar propaganda to make their archenemies seem cruel and less civilized.[90] Matthew McCarty argues that, even if the Greco-Roman testimonies are inaccurate "even the most fantastical slanders rely upon a germ of fact."

It seems to me that phenotypical differences between people always existed, and so has the fact that we stereotype groups we see as "other." But it seems to me that the idea of a race - that, say, all black people belong to one group, or all white people belong to one group, etc., is something we came up with the way we came up with nations and homosexuality and the like. What do I read if I want to know more about this process? Thanks

Was Welch cooking the books? Did he do anything explicitly illegal?

What did he do to GE's main profit makers, and why didn't anyone realize he was creating a disaster?

I was surprised to read that in the Forum of Augustus the statue of Caesar was placed inside a temple with the gods, not outside with such notable mythological Romans as Romulus (literally the founder of Rome) and Aeneas (the progenitor of all Romans). Wasn't it weird for the Romans to see the flesh-and-blood Julius Caesar who only ruled for a few months after winning the civil war to be lifted above such legendary heroes?

It's my understanding that, in the Roman Empire, it was not illegal for a master to kill his slaves for any reason until the 2nd century.

If, say, in the 1st century BC or 1st century AD, there had been a wealthy Roman sadist who openly tortured and killed his slaves for no other reason other than that he enjoyed it, what would have happened? Not attempting to disguise his killings as punishments or anything of the sort, but simply, "I do it because it's fun and I can" and making no attempt whatsoever to disguise this?

I imagine such a person would have likely been unpopular even in ancient Rome, but could anyone have done anything about it?

Need resources for an assignment, any help would be greatly appreciated :)

My question might seem a bit naive or convoluted, but this is something i genuinely want to know. How did we as a species move from africa to the earliest settlements, like Jordan, or Israel, or like the Indegenous Australians?How did they cross these massive seas,over thousanda of years? Is this where the concept of "The Promised Land" comes from?Is this out nomadic past running through us?

This weekend, families across the United States will be firing up their grills for hot dogs, hamburgers, and corn-on-the-cob, whether it's a classic charcoal Weber sphere or a propane-powered, feature-laden modern machine. While the associations with a summer holiday are obvious, the grill has much greater symbolic importance. It's nearly ubiquitous in popular imaginaries of mid-century suburbia and broader ideas of the American dream. Pop culture also treats grilling as exclusively male, with innumerable "grillmaster" t-shirts and jokes about dads, grills, and white New Balance shoes.

What's the origin of the backyard barbecue grill, and when did it take such an oversized in role in depictions of American masculinity?

I'm brushing up on my knowledge of history; I'm using a timeline from one of my textbooks. The problem is it only covers Western Civilization; and I want to read about the east too. Is there any timeline anyone can recommend?

Somehow it is already July... How'd that happen?