I'm currently reading E.B. Sledge's autobiography "With the Old Breed." It is thus far an absolutely outstanding read told from the perspective of a front-line infantryman.
Though my version of the novel has various anecdotes and references, I'm confused by a lot of the terms related to the sighting/target acquisition/target engagement by mortar teams, of which E.B. Sledge was a part. I've been searching YouTube and other resources and have come up dry.
What I'm wondering is, how did mortar teams in WW2 - the Pacific, particularly - "register" their mortars and then deliver accurate fire? I've read about stakes that were placed in the dark of night to mark distances. How did they use these stakes to place accurate rounds on targets many meters further from those stakes?
1 Answers 2018-08-02
I keep seeing 3d models of reconstructed faces that look like britney spears and winona ryder. Then there are other people asserting that egyptians were black and pointing to the nose shape in different sculptures of the time. Is there any way to really know their skin color and non boney facial features? Why do none of the models I keep seeing look like today's Egyptian? What did they really look like?
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For example Mount Ararat or the Alps. I think this can be extended to other nations as well and other natural sites (caves, waterfalls etc.)
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What if any stigma was there? Did the acceptance of it depend on class?
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I understand that AskHistory requires questions regarding events that took place over 20 years ago. To be clear, my question isn’t at all directed at the most recent recession.
I’m curious as to an insight into the frame of mind of Americans, and if possible, even International peoples concerns at America’s resolve to withstand such a crisis back in the 30s. Did experts fear for the country’s future during this time, like they did in 2008? Or was there an expectation that times were very tough at the moment, but it was pretty certain that the country would recover later?
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Source on quote: http://newpol.org/content/socialism-and-homosexuality
Edit on title: homosexuality and fascism
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I was reading on Wikipedia about shanghaiing (mostly to figure out the spelling) and came across this sentence in the section "Ending the practice":
"The sinking of the RMS Titanic, followed by onset of World War I (which made the high seas a much more dangerous place due to the threat of submarine attack) provided the final impetus to stamp out the practice. "
I understand the WW1 part, that use of steam boats changed the labour needs and that some laws were changed/created. But how did the sinking of Titanic play a role?
It's not like it's the first ship to sink in the history of shanghaiing. Was it "just" the sheer scale of the catastrophe? Did shanghiied and possibly unqualified crew play a role in the accident?
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I've been reading through the Cambridge History of the Native Peoples of the Americas, and in the Gulf Coast chapter, it's repeatedly stressed that the Gulf Coast is not as well studied as most of Mesoamerica, and the Postclassic period is especially little-known.
Similarly, Smith and Berdan's The Postclassic Mesoamerican World has chapters for virtually every region of Mesoamerica, from Jalisco to Belize... except for the Gulf Coast.
Finally, a brief search on Google Books yields no specific monographs on Postclassic Totonac archaeology, one anthology on the Postclassic Huastecs, and nothing on the Postclassic Olmecapan.
Why is this?
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If possible, I'd love to know what the average footsoldier would know about the Islamic faith, but I realize that documentation on this might be rather sparse due to lack of widespread literacy among commoners.
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Major members of Unit 731 were given immunity for the information found in their experiments. I read a discussion by a few Redditors about how invaluable the information was both from the Japanese and the Germans, examples include how frostbite and air pressure affects the body.
However, I can't find any information on the significance of this data, it must have meant something for the US to grant immunity.
Edit: The recent string of my posts makes me seems a bit overly interested in the Axis powers, it's not what you think! I'm towards the end of my WW2 notes.
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My source for this question is Now It Can Be Told, by Leslie R. Groves.
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For a book I’m writing, I specifically want to know whether, say, politicians acted surreptitiously in attempts to preserve assets, as well as in attempts to profit from anticipating what millions would not. Of course, if such things did occur, I’m also curious about stories of how they succeeded. Book recommendations would be greatly appreciated.
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I am wondering what are the earliest recordings of colorism in early civilizations? Also, why was whiter skin color considered to be more attractive? Did this begin before or after the Atlantic slave trade?
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For background I’ve probably got above average knowledge of European history but am by no means a historian - so feel free to presume a baseline knowledge of geography, church history etc. Or don’t! I’d be interested to know what a “blank slate” set of text would look like.
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There is a Chinese saying "The empire, long divided, must unite; long united, must divide. Thus it has ever been."
That saying has held true for most of China's long history. A great Chinese empire rises but eventually crumbles and fractures into many states. From the Warring spring and autumn period to the fall of Han and the three kingdoms, all the way to the fall of Qing and the warlord states in the 20th century. China always manage to more or less put it self together as a single Nation with a relatively consistent Chinese or Han culture at it's core since 206BC. Prior to the first Unification of China by the Qin, China was also divided into numerous states, many with it's own culture and ethnic groups. China ruled over a massive territory and population, no smaller than Romans. Chinese empires crumbled at the feet of foreigners and barbarians multiple times, from the mongols to the Jurchens to the Manchus. Chinese empires also crumbled from corruption, famines and internal instability; however, eventually it reunified.
After the crumble of the Western Roman empire, we have never seen Rome reunify (not counting the Holy Roman empire for obvious reasons), a nation having a majority of West Rome's territory with a distinctly Latin or Roman culture at it's core.
Why couldn't the Roman empire manage to put it self back together like the Chinese did? What was so inherently different about China and Rome that caused this? Why couldn't the former Western Roman provinces eventually reunify after the fall of West Rome in the 5th century?
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