I know I've seen statues of Ancient Greeks and they're super buff so they must have done a lot of work to get into that form. But say the normal soldier would he do loads of pushups to get ripped or just practice stuff that makes him a good soldier? Basically, when did bodybuilding become a thing?

I read all of Moscow's Boy Scouts were executed in 1919. This claim is made in John Gray's "7 Types Of Atheism". What is the veracity of this claim?

I have read the Bolsheviks formed their own version of Scouting, and those leaders who didn't conform were executed, but I have never heard of them executing every single scout in Moscow.

Asking specifically about large overseas routes. Hitler could easily travel Germany-Poland, but how did Roosevelt get to Jalta and Teheran? What about Churchill? With a german U-boat presence in the Atlantic and the Luftwaffe in the skies, how was travel planned?

Sorry, this is my 2nd question of today, and i dont know whether this constitutes as spam, but ill go ahead anyway My mum (Polish) always talked of her two uncles. Ones fough for the resistance, and died. The other went to Auschwitz. The 2nd uncle lived through it, and was then taken by the Red army (as my mum says) I would like to do some research on it, but i dont know where to start? Would there be any records? Is there any way i can find more about either of the great uncles? Thanks for any help!

Did the Greeks have standards or banners like the Romans did? What kind of markings did these have on them? The loss of a Roman standard was a particularly heavy blow to the Legion that held them; did the Greeks have something similar? Was their standard (if they had one) a big deal in their armies?

I am currently carrying out an course called History extension. In this course for my major project I am studying the ‘Holodomor’ and more specifically, the historical debate surrounding the event.

Why do you believe there is such a distinct divide in the historical discussion of this event? Also do you have any books which you recommend I read.

Thank you very much for taking the time to reply, I look forward to hearing the responses!

I have heard this phrase in relation to musket warfare both in the Swedish Army during the Great Northern War, but also in relation to the American War of Independence

Now I'm a bit short sighted, but if I took this phrase literally, I can see the white in someone's eyes at about 5m for sure. 10m - 15m is doable with good light. I can see the features of the face way farther away (up to 40m or so) but not the white in the eyes

So the question is, how literally was this phrase actually applied? Do we have primary sources that talk about what engagement distance was meant with this phrase?

I find it hard to believe that it literally meant wait until you see the white in the eyes, because even if all soldiers had perfect eyesight, that must've been an insanely short distance

Edit 1: Thanks for the answers. I suspected it was more of a figure of speech, I'm gonna take a look at that book "Founding Myths"

Why a Bavarian, and why that Bavarian in particular? Was no-one with a greater connection to Greece available? Or was he chosen specifically because he had little connection to the country?

BONUS QUESTION - when he was deposed, why was a Dane, Prince William of Schleswig-Holstein-Sonderburg-Glücksburg chosen?

For example, Hebrew Yeshua is Jesus in English, Hebrew Yerushalayim is Jerusalem in English, and Hebrew Yohanan is English John.

To be more precise: is it due to the spread of western influence to the rest of the world or were these beauty standards already there to begin with?

from what i heard ww1 for a long time was one big stale mate with it being incredibly hard to even make it to an enemy trench, how did tanks change this, were people making it to trenches much more often or were countermeasures put in place fairly fast to counter tanks

So I remember from school that the only reason we think that King Harold II was shot in the eye by an arrow is a single image on the Bayeux tapestry, which was a later addition to the work. I got to wondering, how much of the history we know is based on guesses, assumptions and potential misinformation from historical sources that were incorrectly recorded at the time. How much about history can we truly be certain of?

I was cutting my nails this evening and noticed that these cheap nail clippers I own have the word "CHINA" engraved into them. They're even engraved on the underbelly so you only see the word when you've got the nail-cutter turned inside out (basically turned the way that lets you push down on the spring).

I thought about what a strange notion that was. There is no other branding on the item. There's no company name, or logo, or anything like that. Just "CHINA". It occurred to me that it's kind of a weird idea to let people know which country your item was made in. Especially for something as mundane as nail clippers.

Is there some specific reason for this that evolved? All I could really figure was that it was to let people know that the country makes a good product and so if they make one decent product, perhaps they make other decent products. Do certain countries require that manufacturers include the country of origin on products as kind of a way to "brand" the country as a producer of such tools? ...perhaps to instill confidence in consumers?

Also, is there any evidence of this happening in ancient times? Might somebody have purchased a vase (for example) in Roman times that said what region it came from? I think it's fairly common knowledge that we associate certain products with specific areas of the world - Persian Rugs for example. Did we just come to love Persian rugs or did the Persian area specifically brand rugs thus informing the world that they make them?

In summary: When did this practice start? Is there evidence of it in the ancient world? Do/did certain countries enact laws requiring it of their manufacturing businesses? Is there some well-studied marketing science behind it as to why it continues today?

Obviously as a political leader he helped ensure to keep the Resistance movement together, but was he an effective commander of soldiers? I see a lot of debate on this topic.

I’ve read about “timber pirates” of the United States’ Great Lakes online, and a comment on this subreddit. However, I’m wondering if there were pirates on other large lakes around the world that were similar to either timber pirates or Caribbean pirates?

I tried to search the subreddit for this, but didn’t see much, however if this has been asked before I apologize.

I was at a dead sea scrolls exhibit today and noticed many iron arrow tips along with depictions of archers. Did the exhibit skip on swords, or were they not around yet despite having bronze and iron technology?

Both countries were former colonial powers with only small overseas holdings left after their colonies in the Americas revolted, yet during the late 1800s, and especially after the Berlin Conference, Portugal managed to carve out an impressive colonial Empire out of Africa, while Spain only got Western Sahara, Equatorial Guinea and a chunk of Morocco After the French took over. Why is there such a drastic difference between the two powers? Thanks in Advance