I'm friends with hippies and I hear it every year, this year is no exception. Mushroom growing shamans going house to house with their reindeer, dropping off psychedelic gifts for the happy Siberians.

As awesome as that sounds, I heard it from hippies so of course my woo detector is going boop boop.

I ask this in good faith. Thanks.

I read on wikipedia that he converted because of a miracle that happened at battle of Tolbiac?

Is it true?

Also, how did the Alemanni lose if they were winning in the beginning?

No links, but I found a 1945 article by Walter Trohan stating that terms of surrender were offered through MacArthur in January 1945.

Is there veracity to this claim?

My growing understanding of the title "King" was that it was originally an ethno-tribal appelation, given to the chief ruler of a folk-nation or People (i.e. King of the Lombards, King of the Franks, etc). I understand, in that way, Charlemagne who was King of the Franks in his own right made other kings his vassals and is therefore an Emperor. Why then did King Alfred of Wessex, who sought to unite the various Saxon kingdoms of England under his crown, not claim the title of an Emperor? Was it because he sought to unite the Kingdoms into one royal realm, under a single King?

I could very well be misunderstanding something or misplacing dates, but I understood the present Hungarian population to come from the Indo-European influence on Ugrian hunters from the Ural Mountains.

I read that the surname, Balla, comes from Italy, and is an occupational surname coming from merchants. A Balla surname website says that the Balla surname likely wasn’t around in Hungary until 1300s-1400s, and I can track the Balla name in my village (and family, with church/birth/marriage records to back it up) in far northeast Hungary to the early late 1600s-1700s. Additionally, the surname is prevalent in the Budapest area, not especially so at that time in Zemplen county, where the village is.

My question : if this is all true, the Balla name must have come into Hungary within 300-400 years of its earliest recorded presence in Northeast Hungary. If the population of Hungary was so influenced by Iran and the Ural areas centuries before this, how did an Italian surname come into an area closer to the Urals than most of Hungary?

I understand there was lots of history between this, like fighting the Pechenegs and such and this history is closer to the area, but I’m still confused.

What historical events would put Italians or Hungarian influenced Italians come into this area, creating the Balla name?

Thank you!

I am especially interested in the time between the Qin and Tang dynasties

I posted this question yesterday - I really need an answer

My grandfather served his mandatory military service plus a few extra years during the middle-ish of Salazar's regime. The family left the country a few years before the revolution. Yesterday I heard a family rumor that my grandfather participated in raids to find gay people. The people they found were shot immediately or sent to prison. I heard that my grandfather and the other soldiers would beat and assault the people they found for the fun of it. Only recently did my grandfather stop using the f-slur, the rumor does not seem too far fetched to me. I need to know if this is real. I'm gay and very much not out to my family, I don't know how to process this. I really need an answer - I've looked everywhere online and I can't find anything. Any information would be helpful.

Sorry if this is the wrong subreddit for this, but I'm just wondering how difficult it is to complete a public history program. I'm currently working on a bachelor's in history, and I'm thinking about getting a master's in public history, but I'd like to get some insight as to how difficult it is, and what it involves. How did it compare to getting a bachelor's?

As terrible as life could be for some people in 1990s Russia, with the political upheaval, violence in some regions, the beginnings of the demographic crisis, etc... weren't the late 80s in the USSR much worse? Didn't the 90s improve quality of life for the vast majority of Russian people?

And, if it's a safe with regards to the 20-year rule: when did the 1990s start being characterized as a catastrophe?

Thanks!

I'm wondering from a historical perspective what attributed to this. Like what decade rang in the era of bad dietary habits and why? Can it mainly be attributed to junk food marketing? Is it a cultural thing that caused it? Etc etc

Are there any books on this too?

If you Google “middle age drawing” or ask a person to describe them, few will mention guns. Most will picture knights, prince was and swords, but the collective imagination of Middle Ages doesn’t include guns.

Same with samurai’s. Ask someone to cosplay, describe or draw a samurai and very few would include a gun

Here in Maryland the natives had the "three sister" crops - Corn, beans, and squash. From what I can tell, corn's original plant originated in what is now Mexico, beans from somewhere in Central or maybe South America, and squash was also from somewhere around the same region.

From what I can tell those crops spread out both north and south, being essential crops to a number of cultures in the Americas. Potatoes, in spite of similar usefulness, did not ever seem to travel very far from Peru, however.

From my understanding trade up from Central/South America existed, as the Chief of the Powhatan evidently had a South American parrot as a pet when the English arrived in Virginia. One would think that over the centuries such a durable and useful crop would have "grown some legs", even before the Inka empire began its expansion.

Potatoes definitely grow at least up here - I've done that myself, even.

My best guess is that maybe potatoes don't grow as well as other crops further south and thus there was a dearth of land that could support the cultivars available at the time (thus there's no "land bridge" for them to creep along). This is a stretch to me.

Is there any formal speculation as to why potatoes seem to be so region bound compared to other staple crops?

They’re practically one of the few indigenous groups who I’ve never seen depicted or heard of using the bow and arrow. Is my assumption correct?

Not a lot to add - what would have been in Washington's mind as he warned about the influence of factions and political parties? There were very few democracies or republics in the world at the time, and even the UK hardly had strong party politics.