Can someone point me to an image?

Bonus: Did he really steal and use Achilles armor as well?

It seems to be common knowledge that Russia was one of the most backward powers of the First World War (maybe after the Ottomans) and that their industrial capacity and leadership was far inferior to the other major powers. I've seen some people assert that the Russians had a gun for every two men, but are statistics like these accurate? Just how disadvantaged was the Russian Empire going into WW1? The amount of casualties they suffered seems quite telling as well.

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Seems like almost every US political story I see in the news is "one source said..." or the like. Was this a common practice a hundred or two hundred years ago? I understand the desire to remain an anonymous source, but also question the journalistic integrity when it is used too often. Was this always the case?

With U.S soldiers in the army(European theater), how did they decide which person got issued, what gear? Specifically the helmets(netted or plain) and the boots/gaiters(regular leather or roughout, m1938 or buckle). Was it based on rank?

They had G.M.T in the 1930's, but how did they keep the clocks all synchronized, were they accurate? Specifically in Europe if possible.

In the movie Enemy at the Gates about the battle of Stalingrad at the beginning of the movie fresh consripts make a daring river ccrossing only to find a big truck and officers shouting at them "The one with the rifle shoots, the one with the ammo follows, when the one with the rifle is killed, the one with the ammo picks up the rifle and shoots!" and handing out said rifles or a single stripper clip to any particular soldier. Did that actually happen?

To elaborate I should mention that my understanding of the catacombs is that they are a series of tunnels underneath certain portions of Paris. Is makes sense to me that if this is the case and there are multiple entrances that any form of French Resistance might use them to their advantage. Was this the case?

This statement was at the top of TIL, but the claims in the comments for why didn't seem to offer good evidence, or used Egyptian law to back it up. Or is this claim just false?

They breathed the same air we do they ate the same foods they saw the same animals. But why does it feel so alien to us? What is it about these civilizations that brings such wonder and amazement?

I'm writing a paper on the issue and all I can find are ideas of Livia setting up her son for success. Was undermining his authority really the biggest problem for Tiberius?

To be clear, this isn't anything holocaust-denial related or conspiracy-ish, I'm well aware of the people he caused the deaths of. But out of curiosity, was he ever known to personally kill anybody, by his own hand? I know he was in the armed forces, but wasn't he a messenger? I'm not sure whether this generally involves killing people, but perhaps it does.

When i looked it up, some said that the advantage wasn't that big because the Americans had many less submachine guns and LMGs due to upper command falsely believing the garand could fill those roles, but I really don't know it that's accurate

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For example, why did the US Army perform the naval invasion at Normandy, when it's the Marines who typically perform beach landings?

In the historical record of Egypt a group known as the "Sea People" is mentioned as invaders from the north. Could they have been Phoenicians ? What are your thoughts ?

I'm not saying these women weren't actually capable of ruling a country but why were so many people of the day okay with being ruled by a women?

What wars and battles from throughout history would have been considered important lessons for an up-and-coming military commander in the 18th century?