This all happened before the United States entered the war, but it was no secret that the Nazi's were unpopular in America, and I wouldn't assume they all agreed with their ideals. What were their reasons and situations for doing so?

From the museum I learned this group was recognized by their state in 1880 something. But in the 1950s Congress passed a Lumbee bill which said they were Indians - BUT did not give them any benefits like other Indians got. How is that legal??

I've been doing a lot of research into the Haudenosaunee for a tabletop game I'm running and while I found plenty of fantastic resources so far about their culture, religion, and language I'm having trouble finding anything about whether they had a judicial system that was in any way similar to the system we're used to today. I'm assuming that the clan mothers would be somehow involved but without any solid evidence I'm not ready to jump to that conclusion.

Or were they just classified as really bad storms? Either in the Americas or Afro-Eurasia.

Hi,

Just found out today that my Great Grandfather Dmytro (Metro) (born 1888) was discharged from the Austrian army shortly before he moved to Canada around 1915. He was from Western Ukraine.

Can someone give me some insight of why he would have been in the Austrian Army even though he was Ukrainian?

I was watching Outlander and almost every single Scottish character is a bilingual English and Gaelic speaker. However as I understand it before the Clearances the Highlands were still a pretty foreign and distinct culture from their neighbours down south, so maybe the English language wasn't so common back then.

Edit: To make the question more focused, feel free to answer this question as regards your particular period of knowledge. However, I would be most interested in any centuries from, say, 1300 to 1800. Whenever I ask broad questions, I generally hope to receive more specific answers based on the answerer's (or, better yet, answerers') areas of expertise, rather than to have one big answer covering the whole scope of my question.

Given the recent Atlantic hurricanes, I thought people living in those areas hundreds of years ago must have been dealing with the same weather patterns. Is there any historical evidence of colonial era inhabitants of these hurricane prone areas either a) being aware of hurricanes as a weather phenomenon b) having a way to detect or expect a hurricane (even if their warning was only slight) c) doing any sort of evacuation or short term preparation for an imminent hurricane or d) making any long term preparations (shelter, infrastructure, etc) for hurricanes?

I always found this one of the most bizarre instances of successful political violence in the history of the Roman Empire, so it would be interesting to understand it further!

I understand this probably can't be answered easily, but I've grown curious as to how such a powerful country can simply lose its might as time goes by versus others that remained relevant and powerful like England.

Where did they get the resources or the technology to face one of the biggest armies in the world?