Were there any centralized projects dedicated to collecting literary or scientific works?
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Colleague "Differential Equations" asserts, "The first thing people did with early electronic computers was numerically solve differential equations." Different colleague Matt reacts, "I thought it was just straight trig for artillery calculations ? Serious q." Who's right?
My short answer: neither, or arguably both. To my mind, a slightly longer answer involves explanation at least of:
I underline that I regard engineering history as a species of history, in the sense that engineering is a human activity.
I'm on a tight schedule this week. While I'd happily write on this subject for days, it occurs to me that the /r/AskHistorians collective might synthesize something greater than I'd do on my own, even with hours to spare. This is a bit of an experiment.
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The 1918 treaty of Brest-Litovsk forced the Russian SFSR to cede Finland, the Baltic states, Ukraine, and Belarus. However, WW1 ended only 8 months later and the treaty was renounced in the 11th November Armstice, and germany formally accepted the treaty's nullification) in 1922. With the terms of Brest-Litovsk annulled, why weren't the territories ceded by Russia returned?
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For quartering large bodies of armed troops among us.
For protecting them, by a mock Trial from punishment for any Murders which they should commit on the Inhabitants of these States.
I was wondering if anyone can explain what this is referring to. Is it referring to British soldiers killing civilians during the early stages of the rebellion (eg, Boston Massacre) or is it specifically toward the conduct of British troops when quartered?
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I just finished reading Thomas Packenham's Scramble for Africa and he talks a lot about the Boer Wars, but now I'm interested in how the Orange Free State, Transvaal, Natalia Republic etc actually functioned. Did they have diplomatic ties to European nations (apart from the British obviously)? Were any of them rivals? Were there plans for unification?
Also if anybody has any popular books on the matter I'd be open to reading those too!
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Title says it all.
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The British and French both had established colonies in the north so why did they never turn their attention south and colonise south america before the Spanish (or at least go to war with them for the colonies)?
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As proven during the Battle of Bicocca, ranged fire was the best counter to the feared Swiss pikemen (but of course the Spanish had a heavy terrain advantage during this battle). During the beginning of the wars most cavalry were the heavy men at arms and gendarmes who used lances as their main weapon, but for example the Venetians also had Statioti cavalry which also used ranged weaponry and the French had the argoulets who also used range weaponry. I understand that light cavalry like those weren't favoured to go up to the pikemen since they could get flanked.
But why wasn't ranged infantry used in fortified positions protected by Landsknechts and pikemen, like at Bicocca, not more used, it seems like that would be the most effective against the Swiss pikemen.
Was there a lack of ranged infantry during the wars? I know that it was a transition period between bows and crossbows and gunpowder weapons, but crossbows were still used and IIRC they could still penetrate the heavy gendarme armour (so they could definetly shoot the Swiss pikemen too). But I think it is also not like military leaders were scepctical towards arquebuses I think, Machiavelli already wrote in 1520 that every man should now how to operate a firearm and praised the oposition for its use of it.
I have a couple theories and I would like someone who knows way more about it than I do to tell me if it is wrong or right:
Due to standing armies not being a thing yet, and due to the perceived effectiveness of the Swiss pikemen the rulers in Itlay and France preferred hiring Swiss pikemen or their immitators instead of other types of infantry, and it took the arquebus armed proto-standing army of the Spanish to get ranged infantry into the play. Military leaders were still sceptical of this tactic and only after it was proven to work at Bicocca did they want to recruit more arquebusiers among their infantry like the Spanish did.
Is this correct? It seems the most obvious answer but I haven't been able to find a definitive answer on the internet yet.
edit: just noticed that I should've written 'early' in the title
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This is a little question that around out of [this] (https://np.reddit.com/r/ShitWehraboosSay/comments/6l7vdp/western_front_is_moron_brigade_turkey_shoot_the/djs2b5t/?st=j4qoxyv8&sh=523c2e0a) thread on /r/ShitWehraboosSay. I have been under the impression that a casualty is any soldier unavailable for duty, mostly due to my long-held habit of reading Wikipedia articles, where the convention is to list POWs as casualties of battles and wars. /u/Ophichius is under the impression that casualties only include soldiers who have been wounded (presumably also people who have been wounded to death). We have decided to let this sub arbitrate.
What is the consensus on this among historians? Among military personnel? Among journalists? Among other relevant categories that I missed?
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Its is true that George V say in a letter: "'Find a reason to go to war with Germany" Heres is the source: http://www.dailymail.co.uk/news/article-2706589/Find-reason-war-Germany-Shocking-letter-documents-King-George-V-urged-foreign-secretary-justify-conflict-two-days-outbreak-First-World-War.html#ixzz38eU324r8
I know that dailymail is not a good page that can tell about history but, I would like to know if this is true and if King George V tried to provoke the war and if he was perhaps influenced by the Rothschilds to do so.
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I don't know if this is the most appropriate place to ask this question but I'm taking a shot. Recently while cleaning out my Grandfathers house, after his passing, I came across this book. It's old and worn out but the pages are clear and crisp. There are names, dates, prices and descriptions of the labor each man came from. It took a while for me to realize what it was but then I found a note tucked away about halfway through from an ancestor who wrote down who owned it, what it was, and that is was 136 years older than 1755.
There are a great deal of pages before the original owners grandchildren started using it to store recipes that are extremely old in their own right. My fear is, however, that pages are starting to get muddied where the ink is deteriorating and I want to see if I could take it somewhere where they might be able to use it for records or anything of importance. I'd like to see it put to a good use.
Should I bring it to a historical society? That's the only thing I could think of at the moment.
Any help would be greatly appreciated or even a point to a different subreddit if this one is not appropriate.
Thank you
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What was the benefit of this? Were there people who wanted death? Alternatively, what might have happened if these men were hanged?
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