I just watched an extra history video on this and was wondering what ask historians thought of the seemingly sudden decline of ancient bronze age civiliations such as the Hittites and Egyptians?

I was reading about Shinto mythology as part of a class assignment, and one of the stories involved a man, Izanagi, going to the land of the dead to get back his sister/wife. Unfortunately, by the time he arrives, Izanami has already eaten food from the underworld and can never leave again.

This sounded eerily similar to the story of Persephone and the pomegranate seeds, so I went to see if either of them influenced the other. I didn't find any information on that, but I did learn that there's another similar myth regarding eating food in the land of fairies.

Does this specific myth that eating food while in supernatural realms have a known origin, or is it all just a coincidence?

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I'm aware that class divisions were extremely important, and sometimes expressed by class-based dress codes during this time, and that soldiers (even enlisted men) wore very fancy, ornate uniforms. Did this lead to anxiety about the fact that enlisted men, presumably lower class men, were wearing the kind of clothes their "betters" might?

A famous phrase "There is no sex in the SSRS" was uttered in the 80s by a soviet woman. I myself am from Lithuania and, from what I gather (I was born shortly after restoration of our independence), sex was a really taboo topic.

Why did the soviets choose this policy?

I heard this on Dan Carlin's "Death Throws of a Republic" and recently repeated it and was asked for a source but couldn't find anything on Google. So is accurate and was this really a common practice?

I saw recently that FGM has been performed on approximately 78% of 15-49 year old women in Egypt. That made me wonder if that practice was already in place in ancient Egypt during or before Cleopatra's time. Furthermore as a bonus question if such a practice was used during that period it would be interesting to know what the Roman Empire thought of such acts. Thanks!

Lately I've seen a lot of comments in threads in this sub that would have been deleted a few months ago.

Have the mods started taking a more laissez-faire approach? Or they've decreased in number?

I really enjoy the high standards this sub holds it self to and keeps things clean and to the point (I.e. Not another endless thread full of puns and Reddit injokes).

The mods were doing an awesome job but lately it seems more comments are slipping through the cracks.

Has anyone else noticed this or is it just me?

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Dear Historians, I've recently been in much deep thought on if I would support the American Revolution as a just war, and have a tentative argument and I'm curious: a) how this argument would've been regarded at the time and b) what do you think would be a good counterargument? My own argument is as follows: I think it was reasonable for the Ministry to tax the colonies to pay for the enormous debts Britain ran up in the Seven Years War and to protect those colonies. I accept the Declaratory Act's power to tax or regulate or legislate for the colonies in all cases whatsoever. I view the whole "no taxation without representation" argument as spurious. I think it was unwise but not ultra vires of Parliament to suspend the government of Massachusetts in 1774. That being said, when Lord St. Germain ordered Gage (without any parliamentary legislation) to disarm the Militia of Lexington & Concord, he was violating the 1689 Bill of Rights which says that Protestants can not be disarmed by the Crown, only with parliamentary consent and the Militia was perfectly within its rights to fight the ministerial army. Especially after the Prohibitory Act of 1775 when George III says he has removed the colonies from his protection, he then forfeited any loyalty since the first duty of a sovereign is protect his subjects, having ejected them from the imperium, the Congress had to reconstitute political society. I was just hoping I could get a good bit of response to this line of thought. /u/uncovered-history would also like to contribute to this

I'm asking because Iceland has a long history of both paganism and Christianity. What were the explanations/understandings of the length of days during summer and winter from either a scientific or theological understanding before Copernicus got big?

I just came back from a drive to the cliff dwellings at Mesa Verde in Colorado and it astounds me that native peoples lived their whole lives without air conditioning and sunscreen. Were they afflicted with any increased rates of skin problems from consistent prolonged UV exposure? I can barely go outside for an hour without worrying about burns, like what's the deal?

Im reading up on American WW2 pilots, and apparently some died in combat way after the end of the war against Japanese Fighterplanes.

How could that happend? Why did the Japanese do this? Any more infos it was such a throwaway sentence on Wiki

I understand it to an extent with its location and sugar production, but to stretch yourself so thin to keep an island whose inhabitant is literally hacking your men to pieces, is insanity.

They had lost all other colonies, why weaken yourself so much? Maybe its a simple answer and I am missing it. Thanks in advance.

I know there was some passage from father to son, or keeping the monarchy in the family. I was wondering why they chose to elect their monarch and how that came about.

I was having a discussion among friends about the Indian Mutiny and a discussion came up of the actual number of Europeans serving within the armies of the East India Company. Would anyone be able to shed some light on this?

Was it decided afterwards, like, "hey, this sucks, let's go back to what we did 50 years ago" or was it more like "we like this, let's stay here". And why that particular time period?