As the question says, what did people in the late byzantine empire dress like? All I've managed to find were a few pictures of the second to last emperor, but only one of them shows anything more than the silly hat he's wearing. Also, this doesn't really help with figuring out what people who weren't the emperor wore. (Presumably something less expensive, with a less impractical hat.)

As in were archers trained to shoot at enemies directly or indirectly. I mean I suppose they can do both, but would arrows be effective when fired in like a 70~degree arc

Like the title says, before ID'S how easily could you change your name and create a new life. For example to dodge persecution or get out of an oath.

Are we trapped within the epistemic bounds of our own era?

Was he perhaps looking to increase the challenge, or was there some strategy involved in using a wooden sword over a steel one?

Not sure if this is the best place to post this but I don't want a bunch of new age hippie bs.

I keep coming across the concept of attaching a chain or a bit of wire to your boot to ground yourself and redirect magical spells in fantasy literature and historical fictions and I'm curious about where the origin of this idea comes from? (besides the obvious concept of grounding against electricity)

I get that it's not real but neither are vampires and people have every answer for their real world origin. I figure this must have started somewhere too.

I watch 'The Great Dictator' last night and as I was pulling it up I took note of the year it was released, 1940. For those that don't know, it's a Charlie Chaplin film satire about Nazi Germany. As I was watching it a lot of the jokes were very close to the truth. There was a joke about deadly gas, concentration camps, and the general repression of the Jewish community. But then it hit me, didn't America only learn what was happening in Germany in 1942? This simply doesn't add up; twice is coincidence, thrice is a pattern.

So, of course, I did a quick google search but the earliest date I could find that stated when America could've learned was mid-1941. Yet, somehow Charlie Chaplin had information had time to make and release a film about that the general public did not have access by a whole year?

Did America learn about the Holocaust before 1940? Or is this a huge coincidence and I'm just wearing a tin foil hat?

This is a question that I have researched quite a bit but I still feel like I haven't found a satisfactory answer. Are the Jews initially from Cannan? Is Cannan historically theirs? And I've seen evidence that Judaism was originally polytheistic, only becoming monotheistic much later on, is this true as well? I know that the story of Exodus is largely a myth, but is there historical evidence to suggest that Jews migrated to Egypt? And when did the history of the Jewish diaspora truly begin?

Any sort of internal conflict would jeopardize war efforts in any country anywhere, which is why past leaders went to sometimes extreme measures to insure unity (Lincoln suspending Habeas Corpus, rationing and propoganda during WW1 and WW2, Japnanese internment, etc.)

So why did those in the Russian Revolution not fear the prospects of crippling their own country and leaving it open for invasion? Yes, they left the war after the revolution but surely it couldn't have been as simple as thinking "oh we'll just leave the war" could it?

The Spanish, Portuguese, British, and French all penetrated deep into North and South America by the end of the 18th century. Yet the interior of Africa remained relative unknown despite the continents proximity to the colonizing powers. Why is that? Why were the Europeans initially more interested in the Americas than Africa?

Obviously the official story was that there were Cathars, who had to be destroyed because they were evil heretics, and so they were. But later historians said maybe this was a lot to do with northern Knights wanting southern land/gold, extension of state power, etc. But when Cathars occasionally come up on this sub, I've seen a new historical view, which is that the Cathars didn't really exist, with their Perfecti and all that, the Church just thought they did. But presumably the idea didn't just come up out of nowhere.

So what really was happening in southern French religion?

Was it because there were so many princes in the Holy Roman Empire, and more princes meant more funding for music? Otherwise, what was the reason?