Historians always refer to 13th-14th century China as "Yuan dynasty", when it wasn't even Chinese at all. It's government was deposed and was under control of the Mongol Empire. Yet it's always "Yuan Dynasty China" implying that it was independent and well, still Chinese. Why is this period of Chinese/Mongolian history referred to this way instead of "Mongol Occupied China" or just "Mongol Empire"

I'm guessing this occurred after the Carthaginians and Egyptian civilizations were dominant, but I don't know when.

I recently attended a lecture on contemporary literary theory and apparently Marxism is still quite a force to be reckoned with in that field. I was wondering how it's viewed in contemporary historiography.

In Spain there were similar attempts to suppress Catalan and Basque to the English's attempts on their minorities. Why were the English so successful, while the Spanish weren't?

I understand that the french lead to us having the metric system that uses a base 10 number system. However before then most of the world appeared to use imperial, which is base 12. what happened that lead to a universal 1 through 10 counting system why not settle with the 1 through 12 system that seems to be a lot more common before metric.

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I've heard that some (not sure of numbers) of German-Americans left the USA to join the German armed forces after Hitler took power (some reference to this is made when I've read about Operation Greif).

What happened after the war to these soldiers? Were any of them stripped of U.S. citizenship after the war? I'm a naturalized U.S. citizen myself, and I remember when I was studying for my citizenship test, there was a section prohibiting service in any foreign armed forces.

Like Rashomon is Heian period; Seven Samurai, Throne of Blood (maybe), and Hidden Fortress are in the Sengoku period; Yojimbo is in the Bakumatsu and Sanjuro is pre-Bakumatsu forget which era was on an IMDb post a long while ago, also Red Beard, Kagemusha, and Ran but haven't seen them yet. Seven Samurai takes place in 1586 and Yojimbo takes place in 1860 to be exact. I was just wondering, Japan's history is interesting and I love Kurosawa's movies.

The Catholic Church holds onto both papal supremacy and papal primacy, while the Eastern Orthodox Church and the Oriental Orthodox Church hold onto papal primacy only, and with a different idea of how this should be applied. It is difficult for both Catholics and Orthodox to agree because those are two traditions that grew separately (it's not as if Rome suddenly claimed to be the head of the Church in 1054), but what can be said from a purely historical/secular perspective?

So i read exerpts from a book that argues homosexuality was accepted in islam till western intervention.

I read some wikipedia pages about it but it mostly covers various gay kings and such, but i'd like to know how accepted homosexuality was in the general population and how ist was viewed by the clerics.

Some points that i have read and was curious if they are true or not:

-A lot of historic homoerotic poetry&art are from islamic cultures

-It was common for young man to have sex with other men to prepare them for later heterosexual marriage

-In all of recorded islamic law there was no homophobic sentencing in over 1000 years till 1979

-The sudden shift in attitude towards homosexuality was due to western colonization

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I've been reading quite a bit on contemporary European History lately and a word that's come-up several time in regards to the German is "Kriegsglück". Having a basic understand of German (and how to google) I figured it means "luck of war" or "fate of war".

But this feels quite lacklustre. What was the significance of this word to the beleaguered German of the third Reich? It seemed to me that it meant far more than just a literal translation, but not being fluent (at all) in Deutsch I fail to grasp it's proper intent.

Any clarification you could provide would be of great help!

I always noticed it in A Song of Ice and Fire but I always assumed it was just one of those fantasy tropes, like having a lot of apostrophes and making everything a pronoun.

I'm trying to fill a hole in my research to explain why one of the country's state-subsidised newspapers held back criticism of his 'dictatorialism' until he fled to the US the following month.

His wife cited being 'under great pressure from friends and former political associates to reenter the political arena, and (wanting) to remove himself from that strain' as being the reason that he sought exile.

Was this political manoeuvring a reality? Could it provide a reason that the newspaper in question withheld its criticism until he was out of the country - for fear of retribution upon his reassumption of power? Any advice would be greatly appreciated.

Since Castile had a reconquista, why did it stop with Granada, why didn't it continue onto north Africa? Also, since the Spanish and Portuguese became rich and powerful, why didn't they try if then didn't?

I mean through patronymes we know there was a huge variety of given names between the corpus from Germanic, Latin (and Greek) and Celtic (for England), and those were fixed in the 11th/12th century. While in the 16th century everybody is name John or Peter.