I understand that the Nationalists lacked tanks, aircraft and other heavy equipment but how did that happen? Surely the German advisors would have pointed this glaring problem?

I'm talking about 19th century or so, relatively modern history rather than ancient times.

In ancient times, warriors from these Mediterranean islands were well-known for their excellence in ranged combat.

How were the circumstances that led to the adoption of ranged tactics in these islands similar or different? Is there any evidence for cross-cultural exchange between the islanders during the time when these tactics were coming into vogue?

Is there evidence to suggest that islanders in general are predisposed to developing ranged combat skills?

If anything, writing with a hard pen is far more intuitive than sweeping with a brush. It's far easier to find a sharp stick or some other object and draw lines in the sand or carve with it. Who would ever think of using an ox's tail to write? Those things are slow, heavy, and constantly have to be refilled with ink. The worst part is that it's hard to control what you're writing with all those bristles, so why wasn't a sharp pointed object preferred?

The Athenian Empire was not extensive or culturally diverse enough to be a 'real' empire, it fits the description of a thalassocracy more so. Why is it called the Athenian Empire? Who coined the term? Should it be seen as a legitimate empire?

I work on Vietnamese history. Rumor has it, and it's at this point just a rumor, that the US had some or most South Vietnamese soldiers circumcized (sp?) in order to tell their dead from NLF and PAVN dead. I'm skeptical, mainly because I've seen no evidence in the archives or elsewhere, but I've heard this in passing more than once from SVN and US vets. Any leads or personal stories?

An operation designed to provoke the North Vietnamese into attacking the South and US interests in the area. This would allow the US to increase its response to the NVs, causing the US to enter into the war.

How true is this?

I'm interested in locating either assorted texts or a particular female historical figure who produced any kind of writing during or around the time of their involuntary committal. Thank you!

I've been searching to see if any still exist but have yielded no results, just curious.

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I recently read an article from Crisis Magazine about how the Spanish Inquisition was actually a fairly nice organization rather than the blood-thirsty zealots they're made out to be. I know that getting my information from an obviously biased, unsourced article was kind of pushing it, so I just want to ask if there is any basis for this belief? Are there any primary sources that speak to either side of this argument?

I remember learning in my Latin class a few years ago that Rome enslaved the people from countries that the Roman army had taken over. He also mentioned that this was the norm. So why did it eventually become enslaving African natives?

The Greek letter "P" was the capitalized form of the letter rho, which roughly denoted the "r" sound. However, in the modern English alphabet, this symbol represents the same letter as the Greek letter pi. What historical factors caused this?

I can't remember who this happened to, but last year in APUSH we learned that this guy, who was seen as a failure by his father, committed suicide and in the hospital that dad came to him and said something along the lines of "wow couldn't even do that right". I just can't remember who this story is associated with so any help is appreciated. The specifics may be off so sorry about that.

What are the best books( or documents/dissertations/films/etc) about this time period? In general, how do historians today look back at the time period? What are the most important events in this time? Britain moved figuratively farther from continental Europe, were they figuratively closer to America? How was Britain's interwar period different from America's? There was an influenza epidemic in the early part of the era but often the war overshadows it, was the epidemic all that important? Was Britain's suffrage movement behind America's? The British gentry and aristocracy had been in decline for several decades, was the interwar period the final blow? The Labour Party had it's great rise in this time, was this a symptom of the interwar period or was it just the political pendulum swinging? Was Winston Churchill a political pariah?