1 Answers 2016-07-07
This is a multifaceted question on a subject I just want a little more clarification on. I've often heard that in many campaigns or battles that, in a general sense, that "this road junction/crossroad is a vital importance". I've also noticed that the names of a handful of battles in the American Revolution and American Civil War end with either "courthouse". My questions are:
I can re-clarify if my question might seem too vague.
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Do we know anything about their reasoning at all? It seems that at one point they have conquered pretty much entire Byzantine East. Were they actually convinced they'll be able to conquer the entire Empire? Would Byzantines concede defeat at that point, or were they unyielding?
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Or Japan, for that matter?
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In one of his videos, Noam Chomsky, the famed linguist, mentions that if one were to look at Europe, in a lot of places local variations in language could be so prominent that sometimes even neighbouring villages would be mutually unintelligible. He says that modern socio-political phenomenon like formation of nation-states could lead to homogenizations that we see today. If this linguistic information in transplanted onto 7th century Arabia, would it be right to say that such local variations would have existed in Arabic also? If so, can we tell which dialect the Qur'an was written in, and in particular, what would this mean for the oral transmission and recitations of it? In the context of a nascent religion, would I be right in imagining a far-off Arab tribe reciting God's message in a dialect that they could not understand themselves? Finally, does the existence of Qur'an in a specific dialect mean something for large scale linguistic phenomenon - could the Qur'an be responsible for triggering some sort of homogenization in Arabic by the virtue of its authority?
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Edit: specifically in historic eastern Asia and Japan.
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I'm doing some fictional writing, and I was wondering how mediaeval commanders might order the soldiers around. Any lexis they might have been used would be very useful. For e.g I'm already aware of nock, draw, loose.
In one scene particularly an army is retreating, then reinforcements arrive and begin attacking the enemy from a separate direction. What might the commander say to negate the retreat, get his men back into formation, and advance once more?
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Like when they took southern britain in the 40s, how did Claudius (or who ever he delegated the task to) go about dividing up the province afterwards
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Listening to some music on Youtube, I came across this fun little diddy. After delving a bit into the history and r/Askhistorians, I found out that both the Bismarck and Tirpitz were sunk relatively quickly in their deployments, but were the largest ships built by Germany during WWII. I know that they were meant to help make up the deficiency compared to the Royal Navy, but weren't to be "superior" and rule the seas due to the lack of Germany production for Naval warfare.
Why were the Bismarck and Tirpitz so easily sunk? I don't mean 'easily' in the general nomenclature, but comparatively to their expensive and expansive nature. Was there a design flaw? Did the German fleet provide inadequate support fleets which left them on their own? Was the era the end of the battleship and beginning of the aircraft carrier which resulted in the best battleships being obsolete? It just seems that both ships were too easily destroyed/incapacitated for their power.
Thanks!
3 Answers 2016-07-06
The votes are in, and the winners for the 'Best of June' award are decided.
There is no "User's Choice" or "Flair's Choice" award this month, simply a first and second place!
Sitting at the top for both as the unanimous winner was /u/CrossyNZ's response in the WWI AMA regarding "the complex (and somewhat appalling) appropriation of historical war wounds in Bioshock".
And close the heels, and equally unanimous as the second awardee, was /u/brigantus's answer to the question "Why is the Fertile Crescent now desert?"
As always, a big congratulations to the winners, and a big thanks to everyone who contributed to the subreddit in the past month! Also a reminder, if you want to nominate answers for the monthly awards, the best way to do so is to submit your favorite posts every week to the Sunday Digest!
For a list of past winners, check out this Wiki page!
1 Answers 2016-07-06
Alsace is culturally, ethnically and linguistically distinct from the rest of France, and seems to have a strong sense of Germanic identity. Why couldn't it manage to become an independent country? Smaller areas that were nearby and neighboured France managed to become independent countries, e.g. Liechtenstein, Monaco and Luxembourg.
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I remember back in my History classes being told that Capital Punishment in the UK was stopped because it was ineffectual. It didn't lower the crime rate, so they stopped using it.
Now that I am older I am more hesitant to believe this. What was the reason for the end of Capital Punishment?
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I've pondered this question for a while. A lot of people insist that we're immigrants in a country that our forefathers claimed, fought, and killed to control. Why is this considered different than any other scenario where a militarily superior country invades and conquers land?
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It does not seem corporate lobbying was necessary to induce the stockpiling of tactical and strategic nuclear arms during the Cold War. Still, this should be an interesting topic.
Was the actual process of manufacture privatized? Was it completed under military control after a certain point? Did anyone make their fortune on the way? Which companies we would still recognize were involved?
Two previous threads on nuclear arms stockpiling:
Also, I was unable to find a section in the FAQ for nuclear arms in a brief search but searching the sub revealed this may be a good thing to add.
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