(Reposted with a fixed title)

So I've started doing some research into my family tree, particularly on my mother's side as her family is entirely 50-50 descended from Irish and German farmer immigrants who eventually settled in northwestern Missouri. I'm particularly interested in the first ancestors from Ireland but especially Germany, since I know more about the Irish ones than the German.

In any case, I found that all of my German ancestors came from Baden-Wurttemberg around the same time period. It's been rather difficult to determine exactly when and where they entered the country, but at least for one set of ancestors I found that they were married in West Virginia (!?) in 1842, so naturally they must have immigrated before that. All of the possible immigration records I've found for one great(3x) grandfather are in the 1830s or early 1840s, so that doesn't quite help me in terms of pinning down the period he left.

What's even stranger is that I thought my mother's family has always been 100% Catholic (which is why these Irish and German farmers lived near enough each other to intermarry), but the couple of baptism records I've found that reference this specific grandfather's name (or at least some people born around his birth date with the same name in the same region) are all Lutheran, strangely enough. I know that region was heavily Catholic - could that be why he left? But why apparently down the line did he or his descendants convert to Catholicism, to the point that they lived in Catholic farming communities?

So my bottom-line question is, why would these people apparently in somewhat large numbers leave their homes for America at that time period (1830s to 1840s)? I know that there was heavy unrest particularly in the region in the late 1840s as there was in much of Europe, but Wikipedia was unhelpful about prior to that time period.

I know this is a shot in the dark but I figured it was my best shot at trying to figure this out.

For example when did concepts like evidence, motives, alibis etc. become the basis for a trial, police a national institution with codes of conduct and oversight.

Both Herodotus and the Old Testament describe how young women in Babylon and other ME regions were brought to a temple when they were old enough and would prostitute themselves for a day. Is there any truth to this practice, or is it just embellishment by Herodotus and anti-Babylonian propaganda by the ancient Hebrews?

I have taken over as director of a local history museum and as the local downtown coordinator. As part of my job as downtown coordinator I am in charge of the revitalization of an old theatre. Originally, back in the early 1900s this theatre was an opera house, it was built for entertainment for railway passengers (our town was a major stop to nearly anywhere in the days of rail travel), after that, in the 1940s, it was converted into a theatre. this lasted about 30 years before the theatre was closed as well. During earlier visits to the abandoned theatre other people have found interesting things. Old popcorn boxes, movie reels, etc. One thing was found on the wall. It is a sign that says "dial for money" and that is all. There is nothing in the area that it was found that eluded to anything about the meaning of the sign. I have tried googling it and scouring the internet but have come up empty handed in my search. I am very interested if anyone knows what this sign means. I also have a picture of it but could not figure out how to upload it. Thank you in advance.

I'm doing an assignment on Ideological Bias in western films, mostly contrast between Traditional and Revisionist western films such as Little Big man and Soldier Blue. I'm looking for some contextual information regarding the conflict that took place. There's A LOT of background out there, I'm looking for some more specific information regarding:

-Why these conflicts took place (as far as I've been told, it's for land, i'd like confirmation and maybe more info regarding this)

-If there was any aggression on the side of of the Native Americans, which i can link with possible ideological bias Any iconic battles that I would find useful in summarizing the conflict?

-Possibly a brief summary, this topic is something I'm very new to, a brief summary of the conflict and its involving parties would be extremely helpful.

Thank you in advance!

Apologies in advance if this is the wrong subreddit. They told me to ask here. Here's what I posted originally:

Writing something that takes place in 1000BCE, and I don't want to have the character say "God fucking dammit!" in rage, as it wouldn't really fit. What're some profane words I can use in place? Anything that sounds old (but isn't ridiculous, like whippersnapper), would work fine.

I'm writing something about King David, and when his men come upon Ziklag, they curse and weep. Like I said, "Son of a fucking bitch" wouldn't exactly be appropriate, so what would be more fitting for the time? Or, at least, fitting enough to where major audiences wouldn't be able to tell.

I can't imagine the Eastern Roman Emperor would have appreciated the pope proclaiming a frankish "barbarian" as Roman Emperor.

To my understanding the vikings were fierce warriors that were feared during their time. Why didn't they try to conquer more fertile parts of Europe instead of settling on places like Iceland or Greenland if they really were such fierce warriors? Was it because of cultural reason or were they not strong enough to take on the empires that existed in that time?

Thanks in advance for all answers, everything is appreciated

Immigration is such a hot topic everywhere now, but I was wondering: Why is it that former colonizers such as Britain, France, Italy, Spain, even places such as Japan, ended up with such a high proportion of immigrants at home from former colonies? My assumption would be that officials back home would want to minimize migration to the home nation from the "less-civilized" colonies. (Although his may not hold for France, which I remember having read as considering its conquered people-to some extent-French.) Looking forward to your responses, thank you!

I don't remember any translation of it being released, neither in Russia nor any other USSR state that I had knowledge of. I first had a chance to read it only after the collapse of the union. A work of such importance most likely would have been translated and released (was it?) unless banned. And while I can remember hearing somewhere it was indeed banned, I have no real evidence or source for it. Nor any idea why, except maybe the "power corrupts" message?

Japanese culture seems to focus on respect and "knowing one's place" Where did this originate?

My observation of a sort of Caste originates from old Japanese movies, by the by so I may be off base there.

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For example the battle of Cannae. The romans were surrounded but I'm having a hard time imagining why this would be such a terrible disadvantage. The circle would be so big that from the point of view of a single solder, the line is still flat.