I'm on an international flight to LAX (now waiting in heathrow) and that question popped to my mind

Hey guys

Today, I'd like to know why anti-semitism was such a popular belief among non-jews centres before the holocaust.

I've heard stories of Romans feeding Jews to wild animals in the coliseum. Jews being slaves in Egypt. Jewish cities and towns being ram sacked, pillaged and raped.

I'm sure there's plenty more anti-semitism actions that I have yet learned about. But I'd like to know why Jewish people where targeted for centuries before WW2. Thoughts?

Apologies if this is asked a lot, just been on my mind the last few days Is there decent evidence one way or the other? Is it likely that Jesus Christ was an actually living breathing person or is it likely he was made from myth Thanks

I don't understand why people generally must vote for a set of ideas and not be able to choose the specific policies, and then the government makes a plan out of that. Has this ever been tried?

From what I understand, Germanic groups had conquered areas in the Balkan region before, but what prevented them setting up a permanent nation state as in, Austria, Germany, the Netherlands or even England? Did some other group drive them out before they had an opportunity to set one up?

*Title should probably be fixed to "Why was there never a permanent German ethnic state in the Balkans?"

As with a lot of things rhyming in poetry seems to be subjective to current fashion. I've always been under the impression the Romans didn't like rhyming poetry. The poetry I learned growing up did rhyme. But modern poetry usually doesn't seem to rhyme.

So my question is. When and why was it deemed fashionable to rhyme in poetry? Or wasn't it as much of an era and more of a personal thing?

I know about the history of Hong Kong during WWII, but I haven't seen much about Macao during that period. How did Portuguese neutrality play into the war? Did Japanese forces ever behave in a hostile manner towards it? Did it receive any refugees, European or Asian?

The cultural development seems to have occurred extremely powerfully in Italy and almost nowhere else.
I understand that Italy had the only large cities in the world at the time, but what are the reasons aside from that?

Who was this Queen and can you tell us a little about Berber origins and history, thank you historians.

I ask because I wish to be a historian, studying byzantine and roman manuscripts, in addition to those primarily latin ones of the medieval period.

As opposed to a British or West Indian accent.

What is the historical context behind the island's culture?

It occurred to me that I don't really know how this transformation in relationships took place, nor am I aware of any specific event which led to some acceleration of friendship, up until America's entry into the Great War.

Why "black"?

I haven't read the book yet, though I am interested to do so. In the History of Byzantium podcast, Kaldelis is interviewed about his book, for about an hour, where he explains his views. That is, that the Byzantine society and system was less divine monarchy than historiography often potrays, and that the people of Constantinople played often a key role in legitimizing emperors or the change in power.

That there was some ideological continuity from the republic, to the empire, and later to the eastern roman empire/Byzantine empire regarding the concept of res publica. Which is often translated as state, but in reality it speaks more of the concept of commonwealth, as it was understood by the Romans.

Everything I've read says that African-Americans left the South in huge numbers between 1910 and 1920 to escape the brutality of Jim Crow laws and lynchings in the South. However, I can't find any explanation for why this didn't happen sooner. Was it a perceived lack of opportunity in the North? Thanks for the help!