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It seems like as technology improved and things like rate of fire for an infantryman's rifle increased, we would expect human wave style attacks to be ineffectual, not capable of beating back the advancing western attackers.

The era I'm thinking of is (very) roughly 1500-1800

While both churches were in union how was this decided? Were there ever any conflicts relating to who could appoint who as bishop?

Let's say we're looking at the period from 1870-1880, in England. I'm quite aware that if a servant were unsatisfactory, they could be dismissed by an employer, their reputation ruined, and they might have some pretty rough times ahead. That's obviously a major punishment, and any servant would studiously try to avoid that fate, but I'm trying to understand if a master/mistress had any legal authorities over their servants outside of their ability to terminate a contract.

These days, a contract can’t override basic worker protections against abuse and misuse, but I believe the 1870s predate almost all of those. I’ve heard examples of servants being punished physically (pinching, paddling, etc), financially (fines for practically everything), and by other means, most of which would be legally regulated today. Did a servant in this period have any recourse against these sorts of treatments, or were they basically a legally/contractually enforceable version of "while you're in my house, you live by my rules" from which the only escape was to resign?

The flipside of this is to ask what legal responsibilities an employer had to, or for, their servants. I can't imagine most servants had many, if any, legal protections. Am I right to think that while an employer’s good will might yield leniency or protection in times of trouble, this was not due to any kind of legal requirement? Going further, given how much control it seems an employer held over a servant’s life, did employers ever bear any of the punishment when a servant engaged in criminal activity? Was there a social stigma attached even, or was it just dismissed as a case of "a lower class person" acting poorly, which didn’t reflect upon their employer?

So a classmate told me today that the Mycenean civilization practiced some form of trade with the region of Scotland, specifically that they imported a mineral (obviously among other things)

Is there any truth to that, or at least anything indicating a relationship or acknowledgment between the two regions?

I read that the province of Judea was important because of the sea route that lay on its shore - since Augustus the city of Rome became dependent on grain imports from north Africa - especially Egypt.

Was the long passage around the Italian peninsula, Aegean sea, Levant to Egypt considered to be significantly safer than the shorter one via Sicily - Carthage (or what was left of it) - North Africa ?

What do we know about Greek and Roman maritime navigation? When did they start to navigate by the stars rather than remaining exclusively near the coast line? What were the risk of maritime navigation? Do you know of any books that cover the subject of maritime navigation in classical Greek and Roman times?

Why is spain so much weaker than France, Britain, Germany And Italy? Historically they have great wealth, agriculture and trade with america that speak their language, and they have the mouth to the mediterranean.

Where did they fall short, and when?

If I'm not mistaken, the original intent of the 2nd amendment was to protect the people from their government. However, military technology has advanced to the point where nearly everyone agrees that the public shouldn't have access to certain weapons, thereby nulling the original intent of the amendment. My question is whether the contributors to the 2nd amendment had any forethought regarding the development of weapons technology, and, if so, how they felt regarding the matter of public access?

My Ancient Greek professor the other day told me that the plague in Athens wasn't the bubonic plague but actually another disease, if so, then what disease was it?

What was the transition like from the medieval oared galley to a sailing vessel? Does it parallel the same changes the armies faced from the switch to knights and men-at-arms to arquebus and pike? Do we see any internal changes within the navy? Ranks? Officer corps? Any other general changes, aside from the obvious technology like gunpowder?

The title is pretty self explanatory, basically what were the main innovations in professional western naval shipbuilding between the introduction of ironclads/steamships and earlier Spanish armada era ships?

Looking at a list of Chinese inventions, it seems as though everything that had been invented in Europe or the Middle East had been independently invented in China before or at the same time. I've heard that in the 16th century, Japan had the most advanced firearms which then disseminated into China. Did technology not spread as fast throughout the country? It seems like during the Industrial Revolution as soon as something was invented, like cheap textile manufacturing, it became widespread almost instantly. Was Europe only superior to China in terms of military might? Or did they just manage to catch them at a bad time, like with the Inka?

I understand that there was nothing waiting for them and crops take time to grow, but what prevented them from effictively supplimenting their food supplies by foraging and hunting until crops could be grown and a more stable food source established? And did they bring any kind of farm animals with them? Thanks!

I'm meant European colonialism

I saw a documentary a while back about ancient death rituals, they showed an interesting artifact (might have been from the Neolithic) which was a piece of clay or something similar shaped like a small child, perhaps a baby, over which someone had stretched the skin of an actual human child. I remember the documentary claimed this could have been done as a way to help a grieving mother cope with the loss of her child, by creating a memento. I've searched online to try and find references of this, but to no avail. Anyone know what I'm referring to, perhaps this was a somewhat common practice?

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