During the time of the 2 empires, East and West, the surge of Germanic tribes (Visigoths, Ostrogoths, Franks,ect) [and the Huns] constantly invaded the West empire until it's dissolution. From my [limited] understanding this wasn't acquisition of new territory, rather they moved away from their home regions to the Iberian peninsula, Italian Peninsula, and province of Gaul as well as the Balkans.

Further on in the timeline post the collapse of the West, the Lombards moved into Italy and numerous Steppe tribes and Slav tribes also invaded and settled the Balkans.

What caused this relocation of all these tribes, what was going on in the East that made them want to resettle? On a side question where did the Slavic people originate from?

Both areas were controlled by the Romans for centuries, and both saw migrations by peoples such as the Franks and Saxons once the empire fell. If these groups effectively brought non-Latin languages to both Gaul and Britannia, why did French become more Latin than English?

After the war stabilized in 1953, what happened to the POW's that were captured by the UN? Were they sent back to North Korea/China, or offered asylum in South Korea?

As title, I was recently playing a game of Crusader Kings and I got to thinking, Italian culture, unless I'm mistaken (which I probably am) only really became a thing after the Lombard invasions of the roman empire, my limited knowledge of ancient history is telling me that it would be more likely that the Romans would identify with Greek culture, considering the Greeks mostly retained their culture until the 1400s. whereas due to invasions and new rulership, culture was changing quickly in Italy every couple hundred years.

This is mostly just brainstorming, I know next to nothing about Romans pre-1000s. but would be interested to learn! thanks for any replies in advance.

Also, sorry if this is in the wrong place, first time poster!

Before Operation Barbarossa, it's said that Stalin refused to acknowledge the mountain of evidence that Hitler was planning to invade Russia, why?

Today is the anniversary of the beginning of the largest naval battle in history (depending on how you define "largest"), and in the centerpiece action, the Battle off Samar, the American fleet is ambushed by the Japanese Center force, caught unawares due to some miscommunication on the part of Adm. Halsey. Once the situation is fully realized, the USN attempts to reinforce the beseiged escort carrier groups with a carrier force under Adm McCain and fast battleships under Adm Lee, dispatched from the Halsey's 3rd Fleet. They arrived too late to affect the outcome of the battle. My question is why these reinforcements did not come from Kinkaid's 7th fleet, which included 6 battleships that would have made a major difference in the Battle off Samar. Halsey's 3rd fleet was engaged with Ozawa's Carriers some 300 miles north of the battle, but Kinkaid's forces had just defeated the Japanese Southern force earlier that morning at the Suriago Strait, a mere 70 miles to the southwest.

I read a gist about it on r/askreddit askreddit one of the worst cities to live in and this came up as #1 but I'm a bit shocked. Surely Auswitz or Post Civil war south was much worse...

I was thinking this yesterday while watching Bridge of Spies. Part of me thinks that the soviets would not send anybody over to America without having some sort of collateral back home like Family.

I would love to know about the absolute oldest joke/jokes, and also a comparison of the oldest examples of humor from different parts of the world. Thanks!

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Was this an important issue w/slavery? If the British won the war were African Americans more likely to gain, or was this merely a war move and probably dismissed later?

Specifically in heavily populated areas like New York City.

Medieval executions in and around the UK. I've seen depictions of more gruesome methods reserved for nobles or commoners depending on the time frame. It would seem nobles were more violently executed earlier on, then the peasants got the short end of the stick later in history. Is this accurate and, if so, what caused the shift?

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I'm imagining a situation where the defenders would know in advance and put on their gas masks, leaving the attackers unaware and without theirs. Did anything like this ever happen?

Currently studying Euripides' play Medea.

Why is there such a development gap? And why does it seem like there is always a dictatorship or rebellion further south? Am I imagining things? I don't live in the Amercas.

Some more questions:

When was the Hebrew language declared extinct?

How did the revival occur? Who were the main architects of modern Hebrew? Are there any differences between Hebrew script before and after the revival?

Is the Hebrew language prior to revival still used as a liturgical language? How many Hebrew speakers were there prior to the revival? How many Hebrew speakers are there today as opposed to modern Hebrew speakers?

How many people who made aliyah already spoke modern Hebrew as opposed to those who learned it after settling in Israel?

How different is modern Hebrew from Hebrew?

For example was one company or even regiment or division issued with one or the other? I assume that some would pick up or trade different weapons. And new replacement troops arriving would have been issued differing things based when they came to the unit.

But was there atleast a effort to simplify spare parts needed in the unit quartermaster/armorer.