So, this is a bit weird, but hear me out.

I am a person who tends to believe that a lot of Greek Mythology was a distortion of historical events, particularly during the Mycenaean Era. For example, the Trojan War described a real war fought between Mycenaean Greek powers and an Anatolian Confederacy from just before the Bronze Age Collapse. I also believe that the Return of the Heracleidae was an attempt to explain the Dorian invasion. (Indeed, I believe the promotion of Heracles as a deity was an attempt by Dorian peoples to justify their place in post-Mycenaean Greece.)

What I realized is that in Greek Mythology there is no mention of anything like the Sea Peoples. For example, there is no myth mentioning a large invasion from the West, which one would expect. We know the Eastern Mediterranean was invaded during the Bronze Age Collapse. We also know Greeks may have been involved, as the Philistines seem to have some Bronze Age admixture. At the very least, the Bronze Age Collapse should have been mentioned in the myths.

So what gives? Why didn't the people that caused a massive downfall of civilization not even get a mention? Did the Greeks not find them important enough for a mention?

I have heard the claim being made (online, on various platforms) that the reason and/or circumstances for the founding of the police force in the United States was to protect the property of the property owning class (and this property includes slaves) and as such, the true role of police in the United States is not law enforcement per se, but protecting property, and law enforcement follows from that, as the law protects property as well.

How accurate is this claim? Is it in-line with any historical evidence on the matter?

Where can I learn more about the foundation of the police as they exist in the United States?

For example, I assume you wouldn't be allowed to stroll a horse or chariot through a Greek agora during the Peloponnesian War. I would think there would be "pedestrian only" walking areas, and certain streets would be where horses, and other large animals would be allowed. When were sidewalks first used? I believe cities like Cyrene and Alexandria (the Egypt one) had them on major streets.

Was he the one to name the country or did the Germans create the name much like what they did with the Hellenic state?

I've read a lot about what was going on for the 100 years or so after the Western Roman empire fell and it sounds a lot like a post-apocalyptic movie.

As I understand it (and I definitely could be wrong) major technologies were lost, buildings were stripped of their stone and lead because no one knew how to mine lead and dress stone, former Roman legions were roving around terrorizing the country side stealing whatever they needed to survive. Roman armor was highly valued by tribal chiefs because they couldn't produce anything of that quality anymore and the chieftains that remembered things like phalanxing won major battles because the art of war the Romans had developed was lost.

I'm curious as what technology was lost after the fall to the western inheritors of the former empire and what life was like after the collapse of the empire.

A frequent trope in American Western films is where a renowned gunslinger would be frequently challenged to duels. These duels would be for no better reason than to prove who was faster. While obviously skewed by Hollywood, are there examples of such duels occurring?

I've read some things recently that Germans could have difficulty finding jobs, had limited promotion opportunities in the military, and were not well-represented in government, but I can't find hard numbers for comparison. That also doesn't say much about how Germans, Czechs, and Slovaks did or did not get along. I don't want to be seen as condoning Hitler's actions, but at the same time, it seems like there was something more nuanced happening than "Germans should be part of Germany."

A lot of people like to rank presidents while citing one or two of their major achievements, but I want to be able to know the full story of each presidency. Is there a definitive book or book series or other resource that details each president's political efforts?

Up to the Song, Chinese dynasties traditionally named themselves after ancient kingdoms of the Spring/Autumn era (Jin, Sui, Tang, Song) and the dynastic founders would take the name of their fiefdom (e.g., Duke of Sui, Yang Jian naming his new dynasty Sui.)

But when the Mongols conquered China, they deviated from this practice and named their dynasty "Da Yuan." The Ming dynasty that followed it, despite being of Han origins, kept the naming convention which differed from previous Chinese dynasties. And finally, the Qing dynasty did the same.

What was the reason for the deviation? And why did a Han dynasty like the Ming, choose to stick with it instead of going with the old naming methodology? And what was the reasoning for why these 3 characters were chosen for names? (Yuan, Ming, Qing)

I'm a Swede, and the history of my language is actually very recent when you discount "Old Swedish" as an actually distinct category from "Old Danish", the reality (but not really) being that there was an "Common Old East Norse" that if not for anti-Danish language reform under the Vasa dynasty in the 16th-century, would've left me much more Danish-sounding than what I am today, oh I shudder the thought. Anyway, seeing as languages aren't static, and people aren't monoliths, would the appelation "Danish tongue" have been used by Norsemen that weren't Danes at all in the first place?

Why is it that other polytheistic religions would eventually get replaced by Christianity or Islam but Hinduism was able to survive to the present day even through periods of Islamic rule (like the Mughal Empire)? Why was Hinduism more able to preserve itself than say Greek, Norse or Arabic Polytheism? Note that I'm not assuming the transition to Monotheism from Polytheism is inevitable or anything, it just seems like everywhere else that ends up being ruled by Christians/Muslims ends up displacing whatever religion(s) were previously practiced there and India/Hinduism seems like the only exception.

Were there big parts of the the country that Indigenous people hadn’t previously explored or lived on?

Pretty much the tittle

Why did the British abolish the slave trade so early and the Dutch so late?

They had similar enlightenment ideals and I’m wondering if there are specific reasons like economics why the British abolished the slave trade 30 years before the Dutch.