What were the techniques available if someone were to break their leg or arm around 1550? Before the full saw solution, what could be done?

Here seems a better place than /r/AskDocs for this.

I've been reading and watching a few documentaries on the topic, and I am still unable to understand why no one was willing to help. I understand that most of them did not want to help (this is a massive topic regarding the genocide) but the exact reason of why is still unclear to me.

Are there any estimates of how many people died in the battles of Mohammad the historical figure? Are there any estimates of how many people he ordered the executions of?

The task force put together for the Falkland War seemed to be hastily put together and had to conduct an amphibious invasion halfway across the world. How confident were the british high command that they could succeed after they had been ordered to retake the Islands?

(I read the previous post on the Falkland war but couldn't find any addressing this issue.)

I'm from England and my (simplified) knowledge of America's influence is the war is ' After WW1 Ford introduced a new car, this got people lots of jobs for lots of reasons, people starting buying more and more to achieve the American Dream, people got greedy, bought things they couldn't afford which launches a stock market crash and then a global depression. This lead to an increase in radicalism in Germany and people voted for the Nazi Party, WW2 was declared, at the end of the war America joined in and then declared victory, despite it already looking like Britain was about to win'

TL;DR Great depression caused radicalism in Germany, Nazi Party elected, WW2 happened, while Britain was winning America joined in and said it was their victory.

So what was America's real part? Did they actually just piggy back on Britain or with out them the war would've ended much differently?

Did they industrialize more per capita than other European countries? If they did what gave them the edge?

I'm accessioning an enormous stack of 1940s-1950s photographs of hotels and restaurants in my county (St. Lawrence Co., New York) that were taken for the purposes of getting or keeping liquor licenses. The hotels aren't what we'd think of as hotels (or even B&Bs) today, they're mostly large houses with a bar/restaurant downstairs and rooms to rent above. The rooms seem like they might have been something of an afterthought, given how small some of these localities are, without even incorporated villages.

So why is this something we don't see anymore? I'm guessing that the rise of motels has something to do with it, but why were motels more successful than this model? Why was it feasible for a tavern to have lodgings, even if they were rarely used, up to a certain time?

I see so many theories about the death of Hitler and the possibility he had not died, but I never saw any evidence that he has died or even that he survived.

I would like to know what it did to prevent widespread violence during this specific period, and what it did not. By Catholic Church I mean the Roman Catholic Church and by "within Europe" I mean "please leave the Crusades off this topic". Thanks :)

Edit: If there's any further reading on this subject, I would love it if you could direct me to it :)

Modern Chinese has distinct words for green(绿) and blue(蓝) as well as an older word that can refer to either (青). Wikipedia says this distinction developed with the adoption of written vernacular Chinese at the start of the 20th century but offers little else. Have distinct words existed in the spoken vernacular since before the 20th century? If not, why did Chinese start to make this distinction? Not sure if this belongs here or in a linguistics sub...

In other words, did any Wehrmacht officer of note discuss in writing (privately or otherwise) their disillusionment with Germany's prospects for victory?